Harbour & Airport Engineering MCQs (HAE) – CIVIL ENGINEERING

check out Harbour & Airport Engineering MCQs (HAE) – CIVIL ENGINEERING for gtu exam.

Question-1 : The navigable waters exist on ___________________.

(A) : inland lakes

(B) : estuaries

(C) : bays

(D) : all of the above

Answer : (d)

Question-2 : The selection of source of power required for moving vessels depends on ______________________.

(A) : noise

(B) : vibration

(C) : speed

(D) : all of the above

Answer : (d)

Question-3 : India has _____________ km of inland navigable waterways.

(A) : 15400

(B) : 14500

(C) : 41500

(D) : 51400

Answer : (b)

Question-4 : _________ is the longest waterway of India.

(A) : National Waterway 1

(B) : National Waterway 4

(C) : National Waterway 2

(D) : National Waterway 5

Answer : (a)

Question-5 : National Waterway 6 runs from ______________.

(A) : Goenkhali to Talcher

(B) : Dhubri to Sadiya

(C) : Lakhipur to Bhanga

(D) : Kakinada to Puduchery

Answer : (c)

Question-6 : Which of the following states is not served by National Waterway 1?

(A) : Bihar

(B) : Assam

(C) : Jharkhand

(D) : Uttar Pradesh

Answer : (b)

Question-7 : Which of the following is not a navigable river in India?

(A) : Barak

(B) : Vishwamitri

(C) : Brahmaputra

(D) : Ganga

Answer : (b)

Question-8 : Which state has the highest number of ports?

(A) : Gujarat

(B) : Karnataka

(C) : Maharashtra

(D) : Tamilnadu

Answer : (c)

Question-9 : There are _______ major port/s in Gujarat.

(A) : 1

(B) : 2

(C) : 3

(D) : None

Answer : (a)

Question-10 : India has ________ major ports.

(A) : 13

(B) : 9

(C) : 11

(D) : 12

Answer : (d)

Question-11 : Which of the following state/s does not have any port?

(A) : Uttarakhand

(B) : Jharkhand

(C) : Both A & B

(D) : Odisha

Answer : (c)

Question-12 : _______________ is the busiest container port in India.

(A) : Chennai Port

(B) : Vishakhapatnam Port

(C) : Mundra Port

(D) : Nhava Sheva port

Answer : (d)

Question-13 : __________________ Port has the deepest draft.

(A) : Krishnapatnam

(B) : Chennai

(C) : Vishakhapatnam

(D) : Mormugao

Answer : (a)

Question-14 : ____________ is a type of utility based Harbour.

(A) : Refuge Harbour

(B) : Estuaries Harbour

(C) : Artificial Harbour

(D) : None

Answer : (a)

Question-15 : __________________ is a semi-natural harbour.

(A) : Bombay

(B) : Kandla

(C) : Vishakhapatnam

(D) : None

Answer : (c)

Question-16 : The only riverine major port of India is located at _______________________.

(A) : Mumbai

(B) : Chennai

(C) : Goa

(D) : Kolkata

Answer : (d)

Question-17 : ____________________ is the first maritime state to set up a stationary body for management & development of ports.

(A) : Maharashtra

(B) : Gujarat

(C) : Karnataka

(D) : Odisha

Answer : (b)

Question-18 : Data on winds, temperature and rainfall in India is obtained from ________________.

(A) : Hydrographic Office of Navy Department

(B) : National Geodetic Survey Department

(C) : Meteorological Department

(D) : None

Answer : (c)

Question-19 : Beam of a vessel means the __________ of vessel.

(A) : Width

(B) : Length

(C) : Height

(D) : Cross Section

Answer : (a)

Question-20 : The depth of the keel of the ship below the water level for a particular condition of loading is known as ____________.

(A) : Draft

(B) : Plimsoll Mark

(C) : Load Line

(D) : Unsafe Depth

Answer : (a)

Question-21 : _______________ is used for carrying out maintenance work of vessels.

(A) : Wet Dock

(B) : Dry Dock

(C) : Pier

(D) : Wharf

Answer : (b)

Question-22 : Plimsoll Mark or the Load Line is marked on the ___________ of ship.

(A) : Bilge

(B) : Draft

(C) : Beam

(D) : Hull

Answer : (d)

Question-23 : The weight of the ship when built in shipyard including all framing, machinery, decking etc. is _________________.

(A) : Deadweight Tonnage

(B) : Lightweight Tonnage

(C) : Standard Displacement Tonnage

(D) : None

Answer : (b)

Question-24 : _______________________ helps in determining elevations of the bottom of water body.

(A) : Wind Rose Diagrams

(B) : Isometric Graphs

(C) : Hydrographic Charts

(D) : Hydrologic Charts

Answer : (c)

Question-25 : Mean sea level adopted by survey of India for reference, is located at ______________.

(A) : Mumbai

(B) : Goa

(C) : Chennai

(D) : Tamil Nadu

Answer : (a)

Question-26 : A __________________ is a refrigerated cargo ship, typically used to transport perishable commodities.

(A) : Ro-Ro Ship

(B) : Naval Ship

(C) : Container Ship

(D) : Reefer Ship

Answer : (d)

Question-27 : ___________ is not the component of harbour.

(A) : Dock

(B) : Jetty

(C) : Squat

(D) : Turning Basin

Answer : (c)

Question-28 : The weight added to improve the stability of ship when it has discharged its cargo is known as ______________.

(A) : Ballast

(B) : Dead Weight

(C) : Gross Tonnage

(D) : Cargo Tonnage

Answer : (a)

Question-29 : ___________________ is the displacement tonnage minus light weight tonnage.

(A) : Net tonnage

(B) : Dead weight tonnage

(C) : Gross tonnage

(D) : None

Answer : (b)

Question-30 : The location & extent of breakwater depends upon the ______________.

(A) : Minimum size of harbour

(B) : Direction of waves

(C) : Configuration of the shore line

(D) : All of the above

Answer : (d)

Question-31 : _________________________ clearance under the keel is necessary to permit the navigation at the lowest water level when ships are fully loaded.

(A) : 10 cm to 100 cm

(B) : 30 cm to 50 cm

(C) : 40 cm to 100 cm

(D) : 50 cm to 120 cm

Answer : (d)

Question-32 : The maximum harbour depth below the lowest water level is equal to (i) loaded draft + 1.5 m when the bottom is hard (ii) loaded draft + 1.8 m when the bottom is soft (iii) loaded draft + 1.2 m when the bottom is soft (iv) loaded draft + 1.8 m when the bottom is hard

(A) : (iii) & (iv) are correct

(B) : (i) & (ii) are correct

(C) : (ii) & (iv) are correct

(D) : (i) & (iii) are correct

Answer : (a)

Question-33 : The depth of the harbour is determined by the equation ___________________.

(A) : D’ + (H/2) + D

(B) : D’ + H + (D”/3)

(C) : D’ + (H/3) + D”

(D) : (D’/2) + H + D

Answer : (c)

Question-34 : The minimum dimension of turning basin should not be less than _____________ the length of the largest ship.

(A) : Twice

(B) : Thrice

(C) : Quadrice

(D) : None

Answer : (a)

Question-35 : The width of entrance channel of medium sized harbour is _______________.

(A) : 160 m to 260 m

(B) : 100 m to 160 m

(C) : 120 m to 200 m

(D) : 260 m to 300 m

Answer : (b)

Question-36 : The Stevenson’s equation used to determine approximate wave height within the harbour is applicable to a distance of ____________, from the entrance and where the harbour is well protected by a vertical sea wall.

(A) : 20 m

(B) : 10 m

(C) : 15 m

(D) : 25 m

Answer : (c)

Question-37 : Assertion A: Depth & Width required at the entrance to a harbour are more than those required in the channel. Reason R: The entrance to a harbour is usually more exposed to waves as compared to the harbour itself. Select the correct option.

(A) : Both A & R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(B) : Both A & R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

(C) : A is true but R is false.

(D) : A is false but R is true.

Answer : (a)

Question-38 : The height of a ship’s side between the waterline and the deck is known as _____________.

(A) : Portboard

(B) : Freeboard

(C) : Beam

(D) : None

Answer : (b)

Question-39 : DWL stands for ______________________.

(A) : Design Water Line

(B) : Dead Weight Line

(C) : Design Water Load

(D) : Dead Weight Load

Answer : (a)

Question-40 : Midships is the horizontal point halfway between ___________________ & ______________________.

(A) : Keel & Deck

(B) : Forward Perpendicular & After Perpendicular

(C) : Load Line & Water Line

(D) : None

Answer : (b)

Question-41 : DWT stands for ___________________.

(A) : Design Weight Tonnage

(B) : Design Water Tonnage

(C) : Dead Water Tonnage

(D) : Dead Weight Tonnage

Answer : (d)

Question-42 : A ship striking the dock wall at an angle of _________________ generally produces maximum impact.

(A) : 45 degrees

(B) : 60 degrees

(C) : 10 degrees

(D) : 90 degrees

Answer : (c)

Question-43 : The size of a single, standard __________ long container is used as an indication for container ship size or capacity.

(A) : 10 Metres

(B) : 10 Feet

(C) : 20 Feet

(D) : 20 Metres

Answer : (c)

Question-44 : The _________________ of a ship at any particular draft is the ratio of the volume of displacement at that draft to the volume of a rectangular box having the same overall length, breadth, and depth.

(A) : Rectangular Coefficient

(B) : Metacentric Coefficient

(C) : Box Coefficient

(D) : Block Coefficient

Answer : (d)

Question-45 : The most common case/s of ship berthing is/are ________________.

(A) : End Berthing

(B) : Both A & C

(C) : Dolphin Berthing

(D) : Turning Basin Berthing

Answer : (b)

Question-46 : The ___________ is the side of the vessel which is to the ________ of an observer aboard the vessel and _____________ is the side of vessel which is to the _________ of an observer when facing forward towards the direction the vehicle is heading.

(A) : Harbour side, Left, Ladenboard, Right

(B) : Port side, Right, Starboard, Left

(C) : Harbour side, Right, Ladenboard, Left

(D) : Port side, Left, Starboard, Right

Answer : (d)

Question-47 : The line where the hull meets the water surface is called the ______________.

(A) : Waterline

(B) : Surfaceline

(C) : Draftline

(D) : Boardline

Answer : (a)

Question-48 : A harbour is a place where

(A) : Ships get shelter and protection against destructive forces due to sea waves

(B) : Facilities are provided for receiving cargo and passengers

(C) : Buildings are constructed for commercial purposes

(D) : All of the above

Answer : (d)

Question-49 : The periodic rise and fall of ocean waters is known as ____________.

(A) : Currents

(B) : Tides

(C) : Drifts

(D) : None

Answer : (b)

Question-50 : The resultant pull on a unit volume of water is __________ at the equator than at the poles.

(A) : Less

(B) : More

(C) : More or Equal

(D) : Equal

Answer : (a)

Question-51 : The height of the tide when plotted against time gives ___________ shape of the curve.

(A) : Triangle

(B) : Square

(C) : Sine

(D) : Sawtooth

Answer : (c)

Question-52 : The average interval between successive high tides is __________________.

(A) : 8 Hours 45 Minutes

(B) : 6 Hours 12.5 Minutes

(C) : 10 Hours 20 Minutes

(D) : 12 Hours 25 Minutes

Answer : (d)

Question-53 : Generally there are ____________ high tides and low tides every lunar day.

(A) : Two

(B) : Three

(C) : Four

(D) : None

Answer : (a)

Question-54 : Lunar day is _____________ than a solar day.

(A) : Shorter

(B) : Longer

(C) : Equal

(D) : All the above options are possible

Answer : (b)

Question-55 : The ratio between the sun’s attraction force to the moon’s attraction force is _____________________.

(A) : 0.62

(B) : 0.26

(C) : 0.46

(D) : 0.64

Answer : (c)

Question-56 : The time taken by moon to make a complete revolution around the earth is referred to as _______________.

(A) : Apparent Day

(B) : Solar Day

(C) : Stellar Day

(D) : Lunar Day

Answer : (d)

Question-57 : The time taken by moon to make a complete revolution around the earth is _______________.

(A) : 24 Hours 50 minutes

(B) : 22 Hours 15 Minutes

(C) : 23 Hours 56 Minutes

(D) : 22 Hours 50 Minutes

Answer : (a)

Question-58 : The difference in height between high water and low water at a tidal station is _________________.

(A) : Tidal Bore

(B) : Tidal Range

(C) : Spring Range

(D) : Neap Range

Answer : (b)

Question-59 : The tides which occur twice each lunar day are known as ________________.

(A) : Spring Tides

(B) : Diurnal Tides

(C) : Semi-diurnal Tides

(D) : Neap Tides

Answer : (c)

Question-60 : The high crested waves caused by the rush of flood tide up a river are known as _________.

(A) : Moon Tide

(B) : Flood Current

(C) : Mixed-diurnal Tides

(D) : Tidal Bores

Answer : (d)

Question-61 : The lowest tide of the month is known as _______________.

(A) : Neap Tide

(B) : Spring Tide

(C) : Moon Tide

(D) : None

Answer : (a)

Question-62 : The world’s first tidal power plant was established in _________________.

(A) : China

(B) : France

(C) : India

(D) : Germany

Answer : (b)

Question-63 : The world’s biggest tidal power plant is located at _____________.

(A) : North Korea

(B) : South Korea

(C) : Germany

(D) : Japan

Answer : (b)

Question-64 : In India highest tidal range is observed along the coastline of ______________.

(A) : Goa

(B) : Maharashtra

(C) : Karnataka

(D) : Gujarat

Answer : (d)

Question-65 : In maritime works, speed of wind is expressed in _____________.

(A) : Knots

(B) : m/s

(C) : Km/hr

(D) : ft/s

Answer : (a)

Question-66 : 1 knot = _______________

(A) : 1.852 km/hr

(B) : 1.852 m/s

(C) : 1.258 km/hr

(D) : 1.582 m/s

Answer : (a)

Question-67 : Potential is the sum of _________________.

(A) : Surcharge Head + Acceleration + Velocity Head

(B) : Elevation + Displacement Head + Gravitational Head

(C) : Elevation + Pressure Head + Velocity Head

(D) : None of the above

Answer : (c)

Question-68 : Wind speed over the sea is taken as __________ of that at a height of 600 m.

(A) : 1/4th

(B) : 3/4th

(C) : 1/3rd

(D) : 2/3rd

Answer : (d)

Question-69 : Wind speed over the land is taken as __________ of that at a height of 600 m.

(A) : 1/4th

(B) : 1/3rd

(C) : 2/3rd

(D) : 3/4th

Answer : (b)

Question-70 : Gradient speed is the wind speed at the height of about ______________.

(A) : 600 m

(B) : 600 ft

(C) : 60 km

(D) : 6000 mm

Answer : (a)

Question-71 : _____________________ is an empirical measure that relates wind speed to observed conditions at sea or on land.

(A) : Richter scale

(B) : Newton scale

(C) : Beaufort scale

(D) : None of the above

Answer : (c)

Question-72 : Beaufort scale consisted of ____________ different degrees of wind strength.

(A) : 10

(B) : 11

(C) : 12

(D) : 13

Answer : (d)

Question-73 : Which of the following Beaufort Scale Number represents a Violent Storm?

(A) : 12

(B) : 11

(C) : 8

(D) : 6

Answer : (b)

Question-74 : What does Beaufort Scale Number 9 represents?

(A) : Strong Breeze

(B) : Strong Gale

(C) : Hurricane

(D) : Storm

Answer : (b)

Question-75 : Type-II wind rose diagram shows _____________________.

(A) : Direction & Duration of Wind

(B) : Direction, Duration & Intensity of Wind

(C) : Direction of Wind

(D) : Duration & Intensity of Wind

Answer : (b)

Question-76 : Type-I wind rose diagram shows ________________.

(A) : Duration & Intensity of Wind

(B) : Direction & Intensity of Wind

(C) : Direction, Duration & Intensity of Wind

(D) : Direction & Duration of Wind

Answer : (d)

Question-77 : Oscillation & Translation are the types of _______________.

(A) : Tides

(B) : Currents

(C) : Wind

(D) : Waves

Answer : (d)

Question-78 : As the wave travels away from their generating area the wave height ________________ and wave length period ________________.

(A) : increases, decreases

(B) : decreases, increases

(C) : increases, remains constant

(D) : remains constant, decreases

Answer : (b)

Question-79 : When the wave reaches shallow water where the depth is equal to about _____________ it will usually break.

(A) : 1.52 H

(B) : 1.25 H

(C) : 2.51 H

(D) : 2.15 H

Answer : (b)

Question-80 : In deep water, each particle of water on the wave surface describes a ______________.

(A) : Triangle

(B) : Square

(C) : Circle

(D) : None of the above

Answer : (c)

Question-81 : Stevenson has developed an approximate relationship between wave height ‘H’ and fetch ‘F’. This is expressed as _________.

(A) : H = 0.43

(B) : F = 0.34

(C) : H = 0.34

(D) : F = 0.43

Answer : (c)

Question-82 : If ‘d’ is the depth of water and ‘L’ is the wave length then identify the correct option for Deep Water Waves.

(A) : d > L/2

(B) : L > d/2

(C) : L < d/2

(D) : d < L/2

Answer : (a)

Question-83 : Waves are generated by __________________.

(A) : Explosions

(B) : Earthquakes

(C) : Transfer of energy from air moving over the water surface

(D) : All of the above

Answer : (d)

Question-84 : The distance between two successive wave crests is called _________________.

(A) : Wave Height

(B) : Wave Length

(C) : Wave Period

(D) : Fetch

Answer : (b)

Question-85 : The straight line stretch of open water available for wave growth without the interruption of land is called ___________.

(A) : Development Length

(B) : Wave Length

(C) : Fetch

(D) : None

Answer : (c)

Question-86 : A very long standing wave on a large but limited body of water is called _____________.

(A) : Seiche

(B) : Swell

(C) : Bores

(D) : None of the above

Answer : (a)

Question-87 : The process of movement and deposition of sand in a zig-zag line in the proximity of coasts is known as _______________.

(A) : Tidal Current

(B) : Translation Current

(C) : Oscillatory Current

(D) : Littoral Drift

Answer : (d)

Question-88 : Reflected waves collide back with the incoming incident waves and forms a standing wave known as _____________ .

(A) : Wave Train

(B) : Clapotis

(C) : High Wave

(D) : Low Wave

Answer : (b)

Question-89 : The wave force can be in the form of ____________.

(A) : Hydrostatic pressure

(B) : Impulse of Jet

(C) : Viscous Drag

(D) : All of the above

Answer : (d)

Question-90 : The wave breaks or becomes unstable when the wave height approaches ___________ of the wave length.

(A) : 1/4th

(B) : 1/5th

(C) : 1/7th

(D) : 1/3rd

Answer : (c)

Question-91 : The significant wave height is defined is the average height of the

(A) : One-third of the highest waves

(B) : One-fourth of the highest waves

(C) : One-fifth of the highest waves

(D) : One-tenth of the highest waves

Answer : (a)

Question-92 : Due to the impact of water wave on a sea shore structure

(A) : Hydrostatic pressure coupled with a strong momentary impact is caused

(B) : Vibrations are subjected

(C) : Internal pressure is developed

(D) : All of the above

Answer : (d)

Question-93 : Littoral drift

(A) : Is the raised line of sand, parallel to the sea coast

(B) : Is a current parallel to the shore, caused due to tangential component of the wind

(C) : Is a current perpendicular to the shore line caused due to wind

(D) : Is the slow movement of surface water at sea caused by the wind

Answer : (b)

Question-94 : Flow of air from one place to the other is caused due to

(A) : Elevation

(B) : Pressure Head

(C) : Velocity Head

(D) : All of the above

Answer : (d)

Question-95 : Protective barrier constructed to form an artificial harbour to protect water area from sea waves is known as _____________.

(A) : Breakwater

(B) : Sea wall

(C) : Groynes

(D) : Bulkhead

Answer : (a)

Question-96 : A marine structure for mooring or tying up vessels, loading and unloading cargo or embarking & disembarking passengers is known as ______________.

(A) : Jetty

(B) : Mole

(C) : Dock

(D) : Dolphins

Answer : (c)

Question-97 : Breakwater height is kept as equivalent to ___________________ times the height of the waves expected.

(A) : 1.5 to 1.7

(B) : 1.2 to 1.25

(C) : 2.0 to 2.25

(D) : 2.25 to 2.5

Answer : (b)

Question-98 : in deep water, the slope for which the armour units are figured should extend to a depth of _______________ below high water level.

(A) : 1.2 x wave height

(B) : 1.3 x wave height

(C) : 1.25 x wave height

(D) : 1.5 x wave height

Answer : (d)

Question-99 : In deep water, the weight of armour units in the secondary cover layer below 1.5 h depth should be __________ of the weight of armour units in the primary cover layer.

(A) : 15-Jan

(B) : 20-Jan

(C) : 10-Jan

(D) : 5-Jan

Answer : (a)

Question-100 : In which method of mound construction a series of piles is driven at regular intervals of 4.5 m to 6 m?

(A) : Barge Method

(B) : Low Level Method

(C) : Staging Method

(D) : None of the above

Answer : (c)

Question-101 : Which of the following breakwaters gives provision to change the shape of basin if required?

(A) : Rubble mound breakwater

(B) : Floating type breakwater

(C) : Hydraulic breakwater

(D) : Pneumatic breakwater

Answer : (b)

Question-102 : The height of the breakwater is decided by taking into consideration _______________________.

(A) : Purpose of constructing breakwater

(B) : Nature of shipping work at harbour

(C) : Extent of the enclosed water area

(D) : All of the above

Answer : (d)

Question-103 : Which method is most suitable for the construction of wall type breakwater?

(A) : Staging Method

(B) : Low Level Method

(C) : Barge Method

(D) : All of the above

Answer : (a)

Question-104 : A narrow structure projecting from the shore into water with berths on one or both sides and sometimes at the end also is known as ________________.

(A) : Jetty

(B) : Wharf

(C) : Quay

(D) : Turning Basin

Answer : (a)

Question-105 : The structures which are built perpendicular or oblique to the shore of a river or a sea are known as _____________.

(A) : Quay

(B) : Breakwater

(C) : Pier

(D) : None of the above

Answer : (c)

Question-106 : In a trestle pier the substructure is ________________ and the pier floor is of _______________.

(A) : Masonry, RCC

(B) : Masonry, CC

(C) : Framed structure, Timber

(D) : Framed structure, RCC

Answer : (c)

Question-107 : The water depth at the pier should provide a minimum _________ clearance under the keel of fully loaded ship with provision for an abnormally low tide.

(A) : 300 cm

(B) : 300 mm

(C) : 3 m

(D) : 30 ft

Answer : (b)

Question-108 : The structure constructed at the tip of a breakwater to clearly demarcate the approach channel is called ____________.

(A) : Dolphin

(B) : Dock

(C) : Fender

(D) : Pierhead

Answer : (d)

Question-109 : The marine structure constructed in form of closely spaced piles used for mooring vessels is called _____________.

(A) : Dolphin

(B) : Fender

(C) : Cleat

(D) : Bollard

Answer : (a)

Question-110 : Breasting and Mooring are the types of ________________.

(A) : Dolphins

(B) : Quays

(C) : Jetty

(D) : Docks

Answer : (a)

Question-111 : The water area between the two adjacent piers is called ___________.

(A) : Slack

(B) : Basin

(C) : Slip

(D) : None

Answer : (c)

Question-112 : The width of the slip between piers should be atleast _______________ times the beam of the largest ships to be accommodated.

(A) : 8 to 10

(B) : 3 to 4

(C) : 2 to 3

(D) : 5 to 7

Answer : (b)

Question-113 : Moles are preferred to trestles when water depth is less than _________________.

(A) : 7 m

(B) : 6 m

(C) : 5 m

(D) : 3 m

Answer : (d)

Question-114 : The height of mole should not exceed _______________.

(A) : 8 m

(B) : 800 mm

(C) : 8 ft

(D) : 800 cm

Answer : (a)

Question-115 : The landing places in the form of walls built near shore for vessels to berth are known as ____________.

(A) : Dock

(B) : Jetty

(C) : Wharves

(D) : Pier

Answer : (c)

Question-116 : Wharves are adopted at places where depth of _____________ is available for the ships to berth.

(A) : 10 m to 12 m

(B) : 2 m to 4 m

(C) : 5 m to 8 m

(D) : 8 m to 10 m

Answer : (a)

Question-117 : The level of wharf should be above the ______________.

(A) : Mean Sea Level

(B) : High Water Level

(C) : Low Water Level

(D) : None of the above

Answer : (b)

Question-118 : Wharves along or parallel to the shore are generally called ___________.

(A) : Sea Walls

(B) : Quays

(C) : Piers

(D) : Jetties

Answer : (b)

Question-119 : In long quay walls expansion joints at every _____________ are necessary.

(A) : 200 cm

(B) : 2000 mm

(C) : 20 ft

(D) : 20 m

Answer : (d)

Question-120 : To prevent dock walls from getting hit by ships, cushions are provided permanently with dock wall which are known as ____________.

(A) : Cleats

(B) : Dolphins

(C) : Fenders

(D) : Chocks

Answer : (c)

Question-121 : Timber pile fenders are driven at _____________ intervals on basin side of quay wall.

(A) : 3 m to 5 m

(B) : 8 m to 10 m

(C) : 6 m to 8 m

(D) : None of the above

Answer : (a)

Question-122 : Which material can stand the shock or the knock of ships better than any other material?

(A) : Steel

(B) : Timber

(C) : Iron

(D) : Rubber

Answer : (b)

Question-123 : Which type of fender is also useful for transferring cargo from ship to ship of big sizes?

(A) : Gravity-type Fenders

(B) : Pneumatic Rubber Fenders

(C) : Timber Fenders

(D) : None of the above

Answer : (b)

Question-124 : Flexible dolphins are used for mooring vessels up to _____________.

(A) : 10000 DWT

(B) : 500 DWT

(C) : 5000 DWT

(D) : 50000 DWT

Answer : (c)

Question-125 : Which of the followings is a fixed type mooring accessories?

(A) : Bollard

(B) : Buoys

(C) : Anchors

(D) : None of the above

Answer : (a)

Question-126 : Which of the followings is a floating type mooring accessories?

(A) : Bollard

(B) : Capstan

(C) : Mooring port

(D) : Anchor

Answer : (d)

Question-127 : For maintaining the top of mooring buoy in horizontal position, the ratio of depth to diameter of the buoy should be ____________.

(A) : 2:01

(B) : 1:02

(C) : 3:01

(D) : 1:04

Answer : (b)

Question-128 : Pick up the correct statement/s: (i) Fender is the cushion provided on the face of the jetty for ships to come in contact. (ii) Slip is the space of water area between two adjacent dolphins where ships are berthed. (iii) Pier head is a structure constructed near the tip of break water near the harbour entrance.

(A) : (ii) & (iii) are correct

(B) : (i) & (ii) are correct

(C) : (i) & (iii) are correct

(D) : (i), (ii) & (iii) are correct

Answer : (c)

Question-129 : Which of the following lines is used for tying a ship with a dock?

(A) : Bow line

(B) : Stern line

(C) : Spring line

(D) : All of these

Answer : (d)

Question-130 : The docks and basins are generally of ______________ shapes.

(A) : Curvilinear

(B) : Rectilinear

(C) : Circular

(D) : None of the above

Answer : (b)

Question-131 : ___________________ is the ship repairing facility in movable form.

(A) : Floating dock

(B) : Lift dock

(C) : Graving dock

(D) : Noe of the above

Answer : (a)

Question-132 : Which facilities are available at graving dry dock?

(A) : Compressed air supply

(B) : Pulling equipment

(C) : Supply of fresh water

(D) : All of the above

Answer : (d)

Question-133 : ________________________ are used to support the ship from bottom in graving dry dock.

(A) : Mooring posts

(B) : Timber shores

(C) : Keel blocks and bilge blocks

(D) : None of the above

Answer : (c)

Question-134 : Bilge blocks are set at an interval of _________________ length wise.

(A) : 10 m

(B) : 2 m to 8 m

(C) : 1 m

(D) : 10 m to 15 m

Answer : (b)

Question-135 : Keel blocks along the center line of dry dock is laid at ____________ center to center.

(A) : 1.2 m

(B) : 2 m

(C) : 1.2 ft

(D) : 2 ft

Answer : (a)

Question-136 : The marine railway are laid at an inclination varying from _________________ to __________________.

(A) : 1 in 20 , 1 in 25

(B) : 1 in 5 , 1 in 10

(C) : 1 in 10 , 1 in 15

(D) : 1 in 13 , 1 in 25

Answer : (d)

Question-137 : The use of marine railway dock is limited to vessels of not more than _______________________.

(A) : 20000 kN

(B) : 60000 kN

(C) : 50000 kN

(D) : 70000 kN

Answer : (c)

Question-138 : The entire length of marine railways would be over ____________________ times the length of the vessel to be docked.

(A) : 8 to 10

(B) : 3 to 4

(C) : 2 to 3

(D) : 5 to 6

Answer : (b)

Question-139 : Which of the following docks can lift a ship by means of its own buoyancy?

(A) : Floating dock

(B) : Lift dock

(C) : Marine railway dock

(D) : None of the above

Answer : (a)

Question-140 : ___________________ is partially enclosed areas of water which are approached by open entrances and are subjected to fluctuations of water level.

(A) : Wet Dock

(B) : Breakwater

(C) : Pier

(D) : Tidal Basin

Answer : (d)

Question-141 : _________________ is enclosed or partially enclosed basins provided with locks and entrance gate to keep the water level constant.

(A) : Dolphin

(B) : Turning Basin

(C) : Wet Dock

(D) : Tidal Basin

Answer : (c)

Question-142 : _________________ are provided to overcome the differences of water level.

(A) : Buoys

(B) : Locks

(C) : Docks

(D) : None of the above

Answer : (b)

Question-143 : What will happen by increasing the rise of lock gate?

(A) : Compressive stress on gate will increase

(B) : Length of the gate must be increased

(C) : Transverse stress due to water pressure on gate will increase

(D) : Both B & C

Answer : (d)

Question-144 : For designing the graving dock, the proportion of ship load assumed to be borne by keel block is ___________.

(A) : 8-Jan

(B) : 8-Mar

(C) : 8-May

(D) : 8-Jun

Answer : (c)

Question-145 : For designing the graving dock, the proportion of ship load assumed to be borne by bilge block is ___________.

(A) : 8-Mar

(B) : 8-Feb

(C) : 8-Jul

(D) : 8-May

Answer : (a)

Question-146 : Pick up the correct statement (i) The curved gates are longer than the straight gates. (ii) The curved gates are require large gate recesses. (iii) With the increase in curvature the transverse stresses due to water pressure increases.

(A) : (i) & (iii) are correct

(B) : (ii) & (iii) are correct

(C) : (i) & (ii) are correct

(D) : (i), (ii) & (iii) are correct

Answer : (c)

Question-147 : Pick up the correct statement: (i) In transit shed, the goods are being stored for short time period. (ii) In warehouse, the goods are being stored for long time period.

(A) : (i)

(B) : (ii)

(C) : Both A & B

(D) : None of the above

Answer : (c)

Question-148 : The open floor space left immediately in front of a berth is known as _______________.

(A) : Wharf

(B) : Aisle space

(C) : Quay

(D) : Apron

Answer : (d)

Question-149 : For the design of normal cargo transit shed, the uniform live load of ________________ is found to be quite satisfactory.

(A) : 20 kN/sq. m.

(B) : 25 kN/sq. m.

(C) : 15 kN/sq. m.

(D) : 10 kN/sq. m.

Answer : (b)

Question-150 : The clear height of transit shed is generally kept as ______________________.

(A) : 6 m to 7 m

(B) : 2 m to 3 m

(C) : 4 m to 5 m

(D) : None of the above

Answer : (a)

Question-151 : The open space for rapid handling of cargo in a transit shed is called ______________.

(A) : Reserved Space

(B) : Clear Space

(C) : Aisle space

(D) : Apron

Answer : (c)

Question-152 : The structures which are used for storing suitable cargo remaining under customs authority, until cleared, are known as ____________.

(A) : Both B & C

(B) : Aprons

(C) : Transit Shed

(D) : Bonded Warehouses

Answer : (d)

Question-153 : If h and h1 are the heights of a light house and the observer in a ship in meters respectively above MSL then the horizontal distance from the ship to the light house in kilometres is ___________________.

(A) : 3.68 (h^0.4 + h1^0.4)

(B) : 3.86 (h^0.5 + h1^0.5)

(C) : 3.86 (h^0.5 + h1^0.5)

(D) : 8.36 (h^0.5 + h1^0.6)

Answer : (b)

Question-154 : The hull of light ships are painted with ____________ colour.

(A) : Red

(B) : Green

(C) : Yellow

(D) : Blue

Answer : (a)

Question-155 : The name of the station is painted with _____________ colour on both sides of light ship.

(A) : Orange

(B) : Green

(C) : White

(D) : Black

Answer : (c)

Question-156 : Lofty topographical feature/s like ___________________ can be used as beacons.

(A) : Hill summit

(B) : Church steeple

(C) : Factory chimney

(D) : All of the above

Answer : (d)

Question-157 : In maritime transport _____________ are used for indicating direction changes in navigation or as a means of alignment.

(A) : Buoys

(B) : Beacons

(C) : Light ships

(D) : Light house

Answer : (b)

Question-158 : Buoys are prepared of steel and iron plates of minimum thickness ___________.

(A) : 2 mm

(B) : 3 mm

(C) : 4 mm

(D) : 6 mm

Answer : (d)

Question-159 : The spherical shape of buoy indicates ____________

(A) : Star board hand

(B) : Port hand

(C) : Junction

(D) : None of the above

Answer : (c)

Question-160 : Star board hand is indicated by ______________ shaped buoy.

(A) : Conical

(B) : Can

(C) : Spherical

(D) : Square

Answer : (a)

Question-161 : ____________ of the floor area is allowed for lift trucks to operate efficiently in sorting, stacking and moving the cargo.

(A) : 10%

(B) : 50%

(C) : 20%

(D) : 30%

Answer : (b)

Question-162 : Transit shed facility is generally free of charge for a period of ______________.

(A) : 7 days

(B) : 30 days

(C) : 3 to 5 days

(D) : 8 to 10 days

Answer : (c)

Question-163 : For direct berthing ports the width of apron is kept about ____________.

(A) : 3 m

(B) : 10 m

(C) : 15 m

(D) : 25 m

Answer : (d)

Question-164 : Excavation of bed below water is called ______________.

(A) : Dredging

(B) : Silting

(C) : Erosion

(D) : None of the above

Answer : (a)

Question-165 : Maintenance dredging is common for _______________.

(A) : River Harbours

(B) : Harbours having tidal basins

(C) : Both A & B

(D) : Dry docks

Answer : (c)

Question-166 : The type of material excavated during maintenance dredging will be _____________.

(A) : Rocky

(B) : Sandy

(C) : Silty

(D) : Both B & C

Answer : (d)

Question-167 : The ______________ dredging system is satisfactory in case of ______________ dredging work while ______________dredging system is satisfactory for ______________ dredging work.

(A) : direct labour, capital, contract, maintenance

(B) : contract, capital, direct labour, maintenance

(C) : capital, direct labour, maintenace, contract

(D) : None of the above

Answer : (b)

Question-168 : Which of the following structures is heaviest?

(A) : Seawall

(B) : Bulkhead

(C) : Revetment

(D) : Groynes

Answer : (a)

Question-169 : Which of the following seawalls receives least wave thrust?

(A) : Sloping

(B) : Vertical

(C) : Steeped

(D) : Both B & C

Answer : (a)

Question-170 : Which sea wall absorbs the greatest wave thrust?

(A) : Sloping sea wall

(B) : Vertical sea wall

(C) : Concave faced sea wall

(D) : None of the above

Answer : (c)

Question-171 : The stability of revetment is governed by ______________.

(A) : Size of stones

(B) : Slope at which stones are laid

(C) : Both A & B

(D) : None of the above

Answer : (c)

Question-172 : A low wall or sturdy barrier built out into the sea from a beach to check erosion and drifting is called _____________.

(A) : Sea wall

(B) : Breakwater

(C) : Groyne

(D) : None of the above

Answer : (c)

Question-173 : Which of the following bulkhead’s anchorage is suitable where existing ground level is at or above the bottom of the anchor?

(A) : Sheet pile deadman anchorage

(B) : Simple deadman anchorage

(C) : Battered pile anchorage

(D) : Frame pile anchorage

Answer : (b)

Question-174 : Which type of anchorage is adopted where hydraulic placing of the fill is carried out?

(A) : Sheet pile deadman anchorage

(B) : Battered pile anchorage

(C) : Frame pile anchorage

(D) : Both B & C

Answer : (d)

Question-175 : What is Full form of ICAO

(A) : Indian Civil Aviation Organization

(B) : Intermediate Civil Aviation Organization

(C) : International Civil Authority Organization

(D) : International Civil Aviation Organization

Answer : (d)

Question-176 : Which is not Aim and Objectives of ICAO (i) Ensure safe orderly growth of International civil aviation (ii) Encourage art of aircraft plan, design (iii) Manage 126 Airports of India (iv) Develop standards and recommendation for- licensing, registration, air traffic services, noise etc.

(A) : (iii) only

(B) : (i) only

(C) : (ii) only

(D) : (iv) only

Answer : (a)

Question-177 : Full form of AAI

(A) : Airport Aviation of India

(B) : Airport Authority of Indian

(C) : Airport Authority of India

(D) : Aerodrome Authority of India

Answer : (c)

Question-178 : Functions of AAI (i) Manage 126 Airports (ii) Provide Air Traffic management services over entire Air space (iii) Provision of visual aids (iv) All above

(A) : (i)

(B) : (ii)

(C) : (iii)

(D) : (iv)

Answer : (d)

Question-179 : Full form of DGCA

(A) : Director General of Civil Authority

(B) : Directorate General of Civil Aviation

(C) : Director General of Civil Aviation

(D) : Director General of Civil engineering Aviation

Answer : (b)

Question-180 : Airport means any aerodrome at which permanent custom and Immigration facilities are provided

(A) : TRUE

(B) : FALSE

(C) : Not sure

(D) : May be

Answer : (a)

Question-181 : Airport runway having length more then 2100 m, Airport type as per ICAO

(A) : A

(B) : B

(C) : C

(D) : D

Answer : (a)

Question-182 : Main body of aircraft

(A) : Fuselage

(B) : Propeller

(C) : Wings

(D) : Rudder

Answer : (a)

Question-183 : Pitching of Aircraft is controls by

(A) : Rudder

(B) : Elevator

(C) : Aileron

(D) : None

Answer : (b)

Question-184 : Aileron in Aircraft helps to controls

(A) : Rolling

(B) : Pitching

(C) : Yawing

(D) : None

Answer : (a)

Question-185 : Yawing in Aircraft is controls by

(A) : Elevator

(B) : Aileron

(C) : Rudder

(D) : None

Answer : (c)

Question-186 : Elevator Controls

(A) : Rolling

(B) : Yawing

(C) : Gliding

(D) : Pitching

Answer : (d)

Question-187 : Rudder Controls

(A) : Rolling

(B) : Pitching

(C) : Yawing

(D) : None

Answer : (c)

Question-188 : Rolling controls by

(A) : Aileron

(B) : Flap

(C) : Rudder

(D) : None

Answer : (a)

Question-189 : Turning radius of Aircraft decided based on dimension of

(A) : Wings length

(B) : Fuselage length

(C) : Total height

(D) : Wheel base

Answer : (d)

Question-190 : Minimum circling radius is There is certain minimum radius with which the aircraft can take turn in space

(A) : Certain minimum radius with which the aircraft can take turn in space

(B) : Certain minimum radius with which the aircraft can take turn at Airport

(C) : Certain maximum radius with which the aircraft can take turn in space

(D) : Certain maximum radius with which the aircraft can take turn at Airport

Answer : (a)

Question-191 : Minimum turning radius is

(A) : It is certain minimum radius with which the aircraft can take turn in space

(B) : It is the distance of farther wing tip from the center of rotation

(C) : is certain maximum radius with which the aircraft can take turn in space

(D) : It is the distance of nearest wing tip from the center of rotation

Answer : (b)

Question-192 : What is full form of FAA

(A) : Federal Aviation Administration

(B) : Federal Aviation Authority

(C) : Federal Authority Administration

(D) : Federation Aviation Administration

Answer : (a)

Question-193 : Pick up the correct statement from the following

(A) : Minimum turning radius of aircraft decides the size of the apron and the radius of the curves at taxi-ends

(B) : Take off and landing distances for an aircraft, determine the minimum runway length

(C) : The length of the normal haul of the air craft decides the frequency of operation

(D) : All the above

Answer : (d)

Question-194 : Zero fuel weight of an aircraft is:

(A) : Equal to empty operating weight

(B) : Equal to maximum landing weight

(C) : Less than empty operating weight

(D) : Equal to sum of empty operating weight and the maximum pay load

Answer : (d)

Question-195 : The bearing of the runway at threshold is 290°, the runway number is

(A) : N 70° W

(B) : 290°

(C) : 29°

(D) : W 20° N

Answer : (c)

Question-196 : As per ICAO, the minimum basic runway length for A and E type of airport will be

(A) : 1500 m and 600 m

(B) : 2100 m and 750 m

(C) : 1500 m and 750 m

(D) : 2100 m and 600 m

Answer : (d)

Question-197 : The objectives of the master plan according to FAA are (i) To provide an effective graphical presentation of development of airport (ii) To establish schedule of priorities for proposed plan (iii) To present pertinent back-up information for development of master plan (iv) To describe the various concept and alternatives for proposed plan

(A) : (i) and (ii)

(B) : (i),(iii) and (iv)

(C) : (i) (ii) and (iv)

(D) : (i),(ii),(iii) and (iv)

Answer : (d)

Question-198 : The regional planning procedure of airport as per FAA (i) Phase I : Airport Requirements (ii) Phase II : Site Selection (iii) Phase III : Airport Plans (iv) Phase IV : The Financial Plan

(A) : (i),(ii) and (iii)

(B) : (i),(iii) and iv)

(C) : (i),(ii),(iii) and (iv)

(D) : (ii),(iii),(iv)

Answer : (c)

Question-199 : The correct order of phase of regional planning of Airport as per ICAO is (1) Site Selection (2) Airport Requirements (3) The Financial Plan (4) Airport Plans

(A) : 1-2-3-4

(B) : 2-1-4-3

(C) : 2-3-1-4

(D) : 4-1-3-2

Answer : (b)

Question-200 : In The Financial Planning of Airport as per FAA, suggest correct sequence of working (1) Schedule of proposed development (2)Economic feasibility Analysis (3)Financial feasibility Analysis (4) Estimate of development cost

(A) : 1-3-2-4

(B) : 4-3-2-1

(C) : 1-4-2-3

(D) : 2-3-4-1

Answer : (c)

Question-201 : Regional plan of airport usually provides the information (1) Approximate location of airports (2) Classification of airports (3) Location of air strips (4) Routes of air travel

(A) : (1),(2) and (4)

(B) : (1),(2), (3) and (4)

(C) : (2),(3) and (4)

(D) : None

Answer : (b)

Question-202 : The data required for regional planning (1) Population (2) Topographical and Geographical features (3) Existing airports in vicinity (4) Air traffic characteristics

(A) : (1),(3) and (4)

(B) : (1) and (4)

(C) : (1),(2),(3) and (4)

(D) : (3) and (4)

Answer : (c)

Question-203 : Select correct order to develop and improving existing Airport (1) Improvement of Airport capacity (2) Traffic Forecast (3) Planning of new airport (4) Determination of capacity of existing airport

(A) : 1-2-3-4

(B) : 2-4-1-3

(C) : 4-3-2-1

(D) : 3-4-1-2

Answer : (b)

Question-204 : Factors considered for site selection of airports (1) Regional plan (2) Topography (3) Visibility (4) Wind

(A) : (1) and (2)

(B) : (1),(3) and (4)

(C) : (1),(4) and (2)

(D) : (1),(2),(3) and (4)

Answer : (d)

Question-205 : Suggest your expert opinion for minimum spacing in km between two airports in the following condition of flight operation (1) Airports having small general aviation operation (2) Airport serving bigger aircrafts under VFR condition (3) Airports operating piston engine under IFR condition (4) Airports operating jet engine under IFR condition (IFR-Instrument flight rules, VFR-Visual flight rules)

(A) : 6.4 Km ,3.2 Km ,25.6 Km,160 Km

(B) : 160 Km ,25.6 Km ,6.4 Km,3.2 Km

(C) : 3.2 Km ,6.4 Km ,25.6 Km,160 Km

(D) : 160 Km ,25.6 Km ,3.2 Km,6.4 Km

Answer : (c)

Question-206 : Runway is so oriented hat landing and take off is done heading/opposite to the wind direction

(A) : TRUE

(B) : FALSE

(C) : Not sure

(D) : None

Answer : (a)

Question-207 : For landing and takeoff of aircraft long clearance areas are provided on either side of runway known as____

(A) : Transition area

(B) : Clearance area

(C) : Clear area

(D) : approach area

Answer : (d)

Question-208 : Arrange in correct order of surveys for site selection (1) Topographical survey (2) Drainage survey (3) Meteorological survey (4) Material survey (5) Traffic survey (6) Soil survey

(A) : 5-6-3-1-2-4

(B) : 3-1-2-5-6-4

(C) : 3-5-6-3-1-2

(D) : 5-3-1-6-2-4

Answer : (d)

Question-209 : The drawings need to be prepared after final selected site for airport (1) Topographical map (2) Obstruction map (3) Drainage plan (4) Airport Master Plan

(A) : (1),(3) and (4)

(B) : (1)(2) and (3)

(C) : (2),(3) and (4)

(D) : (1),(2),(3) and (4)

Answer : (d)

Question-210 : While landing of aircraft the correct order of the runway element is (1) Threshold (2) Clearway (3) Aiming point (4) Touchdown zone

(A) : 4-1-2-3

(B) : 1-2-3-4

(C) : 2-1-4-3

(D) : 4-1-2-3

Answer : (c)

Question-211 : The area beyond the runway, used in case of engine failure, it is kept free from obstruction

(A) : Stop way

(B) : Clearway

(C) : Touchdown zone

(D) : None

Answer : (b)

Question-212 : The take off distance must be ________% of actual distance the aircraft uses to reach a height of __________ m.

(A) : 115,10.5

(B) : 11.5,105

(C) : 10.5,115

(D) : None

Answer : (a)

Question-213 : During take off the start of runway to the point where the wheels of aircraft looses contact with runway pavement is known as________________

(A) : Lift of distance

(B) : Landing distance

(C) : Take of distance

(D) : None

Answer : (a)

Question-214 : As per ICAO the width of clearway shall be not less than_______________m

(A) : 125

(B) : 150

(C) : 105

(D) : 175

Answer : (b)

Question-215 : It provide access to aircraft from the runway to terminal area service hangers and back.

(A) : Runway

(B) : Hanger

(C) : Taxiway

(D) : Clearway

Answer : (c)

Question-216 : It accommodate aircraft for loading and unloading of cargo and passengers, parking ,refueling

(A) : Apron

(B) : Taxiway

(C) : Runway

(D) : Stopway

Answer : (a)

Question-217 : The number of aircraft movement which an airport can process within a specified period of time, with an average delay to the departing aircraft within the acceptable time limit is defined as

(A) : Aircraft capacity

(B) : Airport competency

(C) : Airport capacity

(D) : None

Answer : (c)

Question-218 : Which of the following is used for servicing and repairs of the aircraft?

(A) : Apron

(B) : Holding apron

(C) : Terminal building

(D) : Hanger

Answer : (d)

Question-219 : Within _____________ Km from runway end, considered as obstruction if height is more than ________________ m.

(A) : 15,30

(B) : 30,15

(C) : 13,30

(D) : 45,30

Answer : (a)

Question-220 : At runway any object whose height exceeds _________________m above ground level is considered as an obstruction

(A) : 150

(B) : 105

(C) : 115

(D) : 151

Answer : (a)

Question-221 : Within_________________km distance from the runway end, any object shall considered as an obstruction if its height is more than__________________m

(A) : 30,4.5

(B) : 4.5,30

(C) : 45,30

(D) : 30,45

Answer : (b)

Question-222 : The airport having runway length more than 900 m the outer horizontal surface (OHS) is suggested, which RL is __________m above from airport reference point(ARP)

(A) : 150

(B) : 105

(C) : 100

(D) : 200

Answer : (a)

Question-223 : The slope of the transitional surface for A, B and C type of runway shall be

(A) : 1:05

(B) : 1:07

(C) : 1:10

(D) : 1:12

Answer : (b)

Question-224 : Conical surface of the approach area rises outwards

(A) : 1 in 10

(B) : 1 in 15

(C) : 1 in 20

(D) : 1 in 25

Answer : (c)

Question-225 : The fuse large includes

(A) : Passengers chamber

(B) : Pilot’s cabin

(C) : Tail of aircraft

(D) : All the above

Answer : (d)

Question-226 : The runway orientation is made so that landing and takeoff are

(A) : Against the wind direction

(B) : Along the wind direction

(C) : Perpendicular to wind direction

(D) : None of these

Answer : (a)

Question-227 : Pick up the correct statement from the following:

(A) : Approach zone survey is carried out to determine the elevations of the protruding obstructions above horizontal, conical and transitional surfaces

(B) : The wind data of an air port is depicted in the form of a chart known as wind rose

(C) : The landing and takeoff of the air craft is made against the wind direction

(D) : All the above

Answer : (d)

Question-228 : Pick up the correct statement from the following (A) Approach zone survey is carried out to determine the elevations of the protruding obstructions above horizontal, conical and transitional surfaces (B) The wind data of an air port is depicted in the form of a chart known as wind rose (C) The landing and take off of the air craft is made against the wind direction

(A) : A only

(B) : A and B

(C) : B and C

(D) : A,B and C

Answer : (d)

Question-229 : Pick up the correct statement from the following:

(A) : Approximate geometric centre of the landing area, is called air port reference point

(B) : The boundaries of horizontal surface and conical surface are marked with reference to air port reference point

(C) : The location of the air port on a map is the position of air port reference point

(D) : All the above

Answer : (d)

Question-230 : The runway orientation is made so that landing and take off are

(A) : Against the wind direction

(B) : along the wind direction

(C) : perpendicular to wind direction

(D) : none of these

Answer : (a)

Question-231 : According to I.C.A.O. the slope of transitional surface at right angles to the centre line of runway, is kept

(A) : 1 in 4

(B) : 1 in 5

(C) : 1 in 6

(D) : 1 in 7

Answer : (d)

Question-232 : The meteorological condition which influences the size and location of an air port is

(A) : air density

(B) : reduced level

(C) : wind direction

(D) : all the above

Answer : (d)

Question-233 : Conical surface of the approach area rises outwards

(A) : 1 in 10

(B) : 1 in 15

(C) : 1 in 20

(D) : 1 in 245

Answer : (c)

Question-234 : Conical surface of the approach area rises outwards

(A) : 1 in 10

(B) : 1 in 15

(C) : 1 in 20

(D) : 1 in 245

Answer : (c)

Question-235 : Runway is usually oriented in the direction of

(A) : Prevailing winds

(B) : Opposite to wind direction

(C) : Against wind direction

(D) : None

Answer : (a)

Question-236 : Which Factor is not considered for Orientation of runway

(A) : Wind direction

(B) : Location of neighboring airport.

(C) : Topography

(D) : None

Answer : (d)

Question-237 : Normal component of wind direction is called

(A) : Perpendicular wind component

(B) : cross wind component

(C) : Light wind component

(D) : Parallel wind component

Answer : (b)

Question-238 : Percentage of time in a year during which cross wind component remains within limit is called

(A) : wind duration

(B) : wind time

(C) : wind correction

(D) : wind coverage

Answer : (d)

Question-239 : CALM Period during which wind velocity remain below _____________Km/hr

(A) : 6.2

(B) : 6.4

(C) : 6

(D) : 6.6

Answer : (b)

Question-240 : Calm period = 100 – ___________________

(A) : Total wind coverage

(B) : Total wind duration

(C) : Total wind velocity

(D) : None

Answer : (a)

Question-241 : Wind rose diagram represent____________,_____________, and _____________ of wind

(A) : direction, duration and intercity

(B) : data, duration and intensity

(C) : direction, duration and intensity

(D) : None

Answer : (c)

Question-242 : Wind Rose diagram help to determine suitable _______________ and _________________.

(A) : Orientation

(B) : proposed capacity

(C) : Only A

(D) : A and B both

Answer : (d)

Question-243 : standard temperature at the airport is ____________degree celsius

(A) : 13

(B) : 16

(C) : 11

(D) : 15

Answer : (d)

Question-244 : Normal landing case Aircraft should come to a stop within

(A) : 50% of landing distance

(B) : 60% of landing distance

(C) : 70% of landing distance

(D) : 40% of landing distance

Answer : (b)

Question-245 : ICAO recommends basic runway length increased at a rate of __________________ rise in elevation above m.s.l.

(A) : 6% per 300m

(B) : 7% per 200m

(C) : 8% per 250m

(D) : 7% per 300m

Answer : (d)

Question-246 : Airport Reference Temperature =𝑇𝑎+ (𝑇𝑚 −𝑇𝑎)/3 where 𝑇𝑎 indicate________________

(A) : monthly mean of average daily temperature for the hottest month of the year

(B) : monthly mean of average daily temperature

(C) : Yearly mean of average daily temperature for the hottest month of the year

(D) : None

Answer : (a)

Question-247 : FAA recommends that runway length after having been corrected for elevation and temperature should be further increased at the rate of ___________________ effective gradient

(A) : 20% for every 2%

(B) : 10% for every 1%

(C) : 20% for every 1%

(D) : None

Answer : (c)

Question-248 : Effective gradient is defined

(A) : maximum difference in elevation between the highest and lowest points of runway divided by the total length of runway

(B) : minimun difference in elevation between the highest and lowest points of runway divided by the total length of runway

(C) : maximum difference in elevation between the highest and lowest points of runway

(D) : None

Answer : (a)

Question-249 : Which are Elements of Runway

(A) : Structural pavement

(B) : Runway End safety area (RESA)

(C) : Clearway

(D) : All above

Answer : (d)

Question-250 : The mean of the maximum daily temp. =50℃ The mean of the average daily temp. =40℃ Airport Reference Temperature is______________

(A) : 40℃

(B) : 43.33℃

(C) : 45℃

(D) : None

Answer : (b)

Question-251 : The length of runway under standard condition is 1620 mt. The airport site has an elevation of 270 mt. Its reference temperature is 32.94° C. If the runway is to be constructed with an effective gradient of 0.2 %, determine the corrected runway length. (correction for gradient is not required)

(A) : 2000m

(B) : 2026m

(C) : 2062m

(D) : 2040m

Answer : (c)

Question-252 : If the monthly mean of average daily temperature for the hottest month of the year is 25°C and the monthly mean of the maximum daily temperature of the same month of the year is 46°C, the airport reference temperature is_____________

(A) : 32°C

(B) : 35.5°C

(C) : 48°C

(D) : 25°C

Answer : (a)

Question-253 : As per ICAO recommendation the cross wind component shall not greater than _______________KMPH for big aircraft

(A) : 25

(B) : 35

(C) : 45

(D) : 15

Answer : (b)

Question-254 : % of time in a year during which Cross wind component (CWC ) remains within limit is called _______________________

(A) : wind coverage

(B) : wind component

(C) : wind cone

(D) : None

Answer : (a)

Question-255 : The period for which the wind velocity remains below _____________ Km/hr.

(A) : 6.4

(B) : 4.6

(C) : 6.54

(D) : 5.64

Answer : (a)

Question-256 : The time period in which the wind velocity remains below 6.4 Km/hr at airport site is known as ___________________

(A) : Wind obstruction

(B) : Calamity period

(C) : Calm period

(D) : Wind coverage

Answer : (c)

Question-257 : The wind data of its direction, duration and intensity are graphically represented by a diagram called as _______________________diagram

(A) : Rose wind

(B) : Calm period

(C) : Wind coverage

(D) : wind rose

Answer : (d)

Question-258 : The orientation runway strip can be fixed with the help of______________________

(A) : Wind coverage

(B) : Wind rose diagram (WRD)

(C) : Calm period

(D) : Wind cone

Answer : (b)

Question-259 : Type I -Wind rose diagram (WRD) represents________________of wind

(A) : direction and duration

(B) : direction,duration and intensity

(C) : intensity and direction

(D) : duration and intensity

Answer : (a)

Question-260 : Type II -Wind rose diagram (WRD) represents _______________________________ of wind

(A) : direction and intensity

(B) : duration and intensity

(C) : direction, duration and intensity

(D) : direction and duration

Answer : (c)

Question-261 : Aircraft should come to a stop within 60% of landing distance at the same time it cross the threshold at a height of 15 m is known as ___________________________

(A) : Normal landing case

(B) : Engine failure case

(C) : Normal take-off case

(D) : None

Answer : (a)

Question-262 : 115% of the actual distance the aircraft uses to reach a height of 10.5 mt, requires a clearway-width not less than 150m. is known as

(A) : Engine failure case

(B) : Normal take-off case

(C) : Normal landing case

(D) : None

Answer : (b)

Question-263 : Require either clearway or a stopway, or both is known as___________________

(A) : Normal take-off case

(B) : Normal landing case

(C) : Engine failure case

(D) : None

Answer : (c)

Question-264 : The basic runway length as suggested by aircraft manufacturer is for _______________________level

(A) : Reduced

(B) : Mean sea

(C) : Lower level

(D) : Higher level

Answer : (b)

Question-265 : ICAO recommends basic runway length increased at a rate of __________________% per 300 m rise in elevation above mean sea level

(A) : 7

(B) : 10

(C) : 17

(D) : 0.7

Answer : (a)

Question-266 : ICAO recommends basic runway length increased at a rate of 7% per _____________________m rise in elevation above m.s.l.

(A) : 130

(B) : 300

(C) : 30

(D) : 1300

Answer : (b)

Question-267 : For each 1000 m increase in elevation of airstrip the temperature decreases by _____________________ from standard temp

(A) : 9.5 ° C

(B) : 6.6 ° C

(C) : 6.5 ° C

(D) : 5.6 ° C

Answer : (c)

Question-268 : Airport Reference Temperature = Ta = Average daily temperature Tm= Monthly mean of maximum temp

(A) : =Ta + (𝑇𝑚 −𝑇𝑎)/3

(B) : =Tm + (𝑇𝑚 −𝑇𝑎)/3

(C) : =Ta + (𝑇𝑚 −𝑇𝑎)/2

(D) : =Ta + (𝑇a −𝑇m)/3

Answer : (a)

Question-269 : As per ICAO the summation of elevation and temperature corrections shall not greater than ______________ % of Basic runway length

(A) : 25

(B) : 35

(C) : 55

(D) : 45

Answer : (b)

Question-270 : ICAO does not recommends the runway length corrections for

(A) : Temperature

(B) : Elevation

(C) : Gradient

(D) : None

Answer : (c)

Question-271 : FAA recommends the runway length corrections for

(A) : Gradient

(B) : Temperature

(C) : Elevation

(D) : None

Answer : (a)

Question-272 : FAA recommends that runway length after having been corrected for elevation and temperature should be further increased at the rate of ________________% for every ________________% effective gradient

(A) : 20,1

(B) : 1,20

(C) : 21,1

(D) : 10,20

Answer : (a)

Question-273 : The runway length after correcting for elevation and temperature is 2845 m. If the effective gradient on runway is 0.5 percent then the revised runway length will be nearest to

(A) : 3130

(B) : 3000

(C) : 2845

Answer : (a)

Question-274 : Pick up the correct statement from the following:

(A) : Runway edge from the landing side, is called threshold

(B) : Localizer indicates to the pilot his position with respect to the proposed alignment

(C) : The glide slope indicates the correct angle of descent

(D) : All the above

Answer : (d)

Question-275 : The total length of a runway is 1000 m. The elevation at distance 0,200 m, 400 m, 600 m, 800 m and 1000 m are 100.0 m, 99.2 m, 101.0 m, 101.8 m, 101.4 m and 101.0 m respectively. The effective gradient of runway will be.

(A) : 0.10%

(B) : 0.26%

(C) : 0.43%

(D) : 0.65%

Answer : (b)

Question-276 : As per ICAO recommendation, minimum width of run way end safety area (RESA) for instrumental runway should be

(A) : 150

(B) : 300

(C) : 250

(D) : 500

Answer : (b)

Question-277 : For determining the basic runway length, the landing case requires that aircraft should come to a stop within p % of the landing distance. The value of p is

(A) : 40%

(B) : 60%

(C) : 50%

(D) : 80%

Answer : (b)

Question-278 : Consider the following statements regarding ICAO recommendation for correction to basic runway length 1. The basic runway length should be increased at the rate of 7 percent per 300 m rise in elevation above the mean sea level. 2. The basic runway length after having been corrected for elevation should be further increased at the rate of 1 percent for every 1°C rise in airport reference temperature above the standard atmospheric temperature at that elevation. 3. The runway length after having been corrected for elevation and temperature should be further increased at the rate of 20% for every 1 percent of effective gradient.

(A) : 1 and 2 are correct

(B) : 2 and 3 are correct

(C) : 1 and 3 are correct

(D) : 1, 2 and 3 are correct

Answer : (a)

Question-279 : The reduced level of the proposed site of an air port is 2500 m above M.S.L. If the recommended length by I.C.A.O. for the runway at sea level is 2500 m, the required length of the runway is

(A) : 2500 m

(B) : 3375 m

(C) : 3000 m

(D) : 3250 m

Answer : (b)

Question-280 : Which of the following factors are taken into account for estimating the runway length required for aircraft landing? 1. Normal maximum temperature 2. Airport elevation 3. Maximum landing weight 4. Effective runway gradient Select the correct answer using the codes given below Codes:

(A) : 1, 2, 3 and 4

(B) : 1, 3 and 4

(C) : 2 and 3

(D) : 1, 2 and 4

Answer : (d)

Question-281 : The height of the pilot’s eye above the runway surface is assumed

(A) : 2.0 m

(B) : 3.0 m

(C) : 3.5 m

(D) : 1.5 m

Answer : (b)

Question-282 : There is 10 aircraft parked at Rajkot Airport and all the aircraft having nose in position towards terminal building, the type of aircraft parking system known as ___________

(A) : Frontal system

(B) : Satellite system

(C) : Finger system

(D) : Open apron system

Answer : (a)

Question-283 : According to I.C.A.O. the recommended length of air ports is decided on

(A) : Sea level elevation

(B) : Standard sea level temperature (15°C)

(C) : Effective gradient percentage

(D) : All the above

Answer : (d)

Question-284 : The engine failure case for determining the basic runway length may require

(A) : Only clearway

(B) : Only stop way

(C) : Either a clearway or a stop-way

(D) : Either a clearway or a stop-way or both

Answer : (d)

Question-285 : Pick up the correct statement from the following:

(A) : The basic length of a runway is increased at a rate of 7% per 300 m of elevation of M.S.L.

(B) : The standard temperature at the site is obtained by reducing the standard sea level temperature of 15°C at the rate of 6.5°C per 1000 m rise in elevation

(C) : The aerodrome reference temperature is the monthly mean of the mean daily temperature for the hottest month of the year

(D) : All the above

Answer : (d)

Question-286 : The bearing of the longest line of a wind rose is S 45° E, the bearing of the runway will be numbered A. B. C. D.

(A) : 135°

(B) : 13

(C) : 31

(D) : Both B and C

Answer : (d)

Question-287 : The thickness design of the pavement, is decided on the load carried by

(A) : main gears

(B) : nose wheel

(C) : tail wheel

(D) : all the above

Answer : (a)

Question-288 : Function of Taxiway is ___________

(A) : Provide access to the aircraft to landing

(B) : Provide access to the aircraft from the runway to the loading apron or service hanger

(C) : A and b both

(D) : B only

Answer : (d)

Question-289 : ICAO suggest surface of visible shall be visible from___________ height from a distance of ___________ for A,B,C type and __________ visible from_________ height for D and E type airports.

(A) : 3m, 300 m, 250 m and 2.1 m

(B) : 3m, 400 m, 250 m and 2.1 m

(C) : 3m, 300 m, 150 m and 2.1 m

(D) : 3m, 300 m, 250 m and 2.5 m

Answer : (a)

Question-290 : In Turning radius 𝑅=𝑉^2/(125 𝑓) value of “𝑓” is

(A) : 0.12

(B) : 0.15

(C) : 0.14

(D) : 0.13

Answer : (d)

Question-291 : Determine the turning radius of taxiway for an aircraft wheel base of 30m Tread of main loading gear is 6m Design turning speed is 50kmph Width of taxiway pavement is 22.5m coefficient of friction 0.13m using Horonjeff equation

(A) : 150.5 m

(B) : 155.5 m

(C) : 105.5 m

(D) : None

Answer : (b)

Question-292 : A paved area for parking of aircrafts known as

(A) : Hanger

(B) : Parking

(C) : Apron

(D) : None

Answer : (c)

Question-293 : Aircraft parking space adjacent to a terminal building known as

(A) : Parking space

(B) : Extra space

(C) : Gate

(D) : Holding apron

Answer : (c)

Question-294 : Size of loading area required for each aircraft known as

(A) : gateway

(B) : gate position

(C) : gate area

(D) : gate space

Answer : (b)

Question-295 : Provide enclosure for servicing, overhauling and doing repairs of the aircraft” following is the function of___________

(A) : Taxiway

(B) : Hanger

(C) : Apron

(D) : None

Answer : (b)

Question-296 : The maximum permissible longitudinal gradient to airstrip for Airport type A,B and C

(A) : 1.50%

(B) : 2.50%

(C) : 3.50%

(D) : 1.00%

Answer : (a)

Question-297 : The maximum permissible longitudinal gradient to airstrip for Airport type D and E

(A) : 1.50%

(B) : 2.00%

(C) : 2.50%

(D) : 1.00%

Answer : (b)

Question-298 : Rate of change of Longitudinal gradient ( 30 m vertical curve ) for D and E type Airport

(A) : 0.30%

(B) : 0.40%

(C) : 0.50%

(D) : 0.30%

Answer : (b)

Question-299 : For sight distance requirement as per ICAO recommends for A,B and C type of aircraft any two point __________ m above runway mutually visible half runway length

(A) : 2.5

(B) : 3

(C) : 3.5

(D) : 4

Answer : (b)

Question-300 : Maximum transverse gradients of runway for D and E type of airport

(A) : 2%

(B) : 3%

(C) : 1%

(D) : 4%

Answer : (a)

Question-301 : Maximum transverse gradients of runway for A,B and C type of airport

(A) : 1.50%

(B) : 2.00%

(C) : 2.50%

(D) : 1.00%

Answer : (a)

Question-302 : Maximum effective gradients of runway for A,B and C type of airport

(A) : 1%

(B) : 1.50%

(C) : 2.00%

(D) : 2.50%

Answer : (a)

Question-303 : Maximum effective gradients of runway for D and E type of airport

(A) : 1%

(B) : 2%

(C) : 1.50%

(D) : 2.50%

Answer : (b)

Question-304 : Determine turning radius of taxiway if the speed of aircraft is 93 km/hour and co efficient of friction is 0.13.

(A) : 533

(B) : 800

(C) : 300

(D) : 1000

Answer : (a)

Question-305 : It is a paved area for parking of aircrafts, loading and unloading of passenger and cargo

(A) : Apron

(B) : Runway

(C) : hanger

(D) : Taxiway

Answer : (a)

Question-306 : In Aircraft parking configuration the fuselage is kept perpendicular to terminal building is known as

(A) : Angle Nose-out

(B) : Angle Nose-in

(C) : Nose-in

(D) : Parallel

Answer : (c)

Question-307 : Assertion A: The width of a taxiway is smaller than the runway width. Reason R: The speed of the aircraft on a taxiway is greater than that on runway. Select your answer based on coding system given below

(A) : Both A and R is true and R is the correct explanation of A

(B) : Both A and R is true but R is not the correct explanation of A

(C) : A is true but R is false

(D) : A is false but R is true

Answer : (c)

Question-308 : Elements at Terminal Building are

(A) : Baggage claim section

(B) : Enquiry counter

(C) : Control tower

(D) : All above

Answer : (d)

Question-309 : It is the portion of an airport other than lending area having facility like baggage claim, inquiry counter, waiting hall etc..

(A) : Apron

(B) : Terminal building

(C) : Hanger

(D) : Runwat

Answer : (b)

Question-310 : Theses are used to deflect and dissipate the energy of high velocity jet exhaust

(A) : Hanger

(B) : Runway

(C) : Stopway

(D) : Blast fences

Answer : (d)

Question-311 : Terminal area includes

(A) : (b)

(B) : (d)

(C) : (ii) and (iv)

(D) : (I),(ii),(iii) and (iv)

Answer : (c)

Question-312 : Basic requirements of an airport drainage (1) Rapid drainage with sufficient capacity (2) Structural strength and safety (3) Capability of expansion (4) All above

(A) : (1) and (2)

(B) : (1) and (3)

(C) : (2) and (3)

(D) : (1), (2), (3) and (4)

Answer : (d)

Question-313 : Is a graphical representation of the amount of earth excavation and embankment involved in a project and the manner in which the earth is to be moved

(A) : Mass curve

(B) : Mass haul curve

(C) : Lead and lift

(D) : None

Answer : (b)

Question-314 : Airport drainage system serves functions

(A) : Removal of surface runoff from airfield

(B) : Interception and diversion of surface and ground water flow

(C) : Lowering of subsurface water level

(D) : All the above

Answer : (d)

Question-315 : The runoff can be estimate by (A) Q= CIA (B) Q=AR^2/3S^1/2/n

(A) : A-true

(B) : B-True

(C) : A and B true

(D) : Both wrong

Answer : (a)

Question-316 : The granular material which is used as a back fill in the trenches where sub drains are placed

(A) : Filter media

(B) : Filter paper

(C) : Filteration

(D) : Flocculation

Answer : (a)

Question-317 : Principally to prevent the scouring in drain the minimum mean velocity shall be

(A) : 7.5 m/sec

(B) : 0.57 m/sec

(C) : 0.75 m/sec

(D) : 0.075 m/sec

Answer : (c)

Question-318 : The minimum diameter of storm water shall be not less than

(A) : 45 cm

(B) : 30 cm

(C) : 15 cm

(D) : 25 cm

Answer : (b)

Question-319 : In a ponding condition of drainage system the inlets are kept @ ___________m to _______m center to center

(A) : 30m to 50 m

(B) : 100 to 200 m

(C) : 40m to 100m

(D) : 60 m to 120 m

Answer : (d)

Question-320 : In a drainage design the pipe diameter and slope can be calculated using (A) Q=CIA (B) Q=A*R^2/3*S^1/2/n

(A) : A only

(B) : B only

(C) : A and B both

(D) : None

Answer : (b)

Question-321 : Providing temporary storage of runoff water prior to its entry in the underground system is known as_____________

(A) : Collection

(B) : Ponding

(C) : Interception

(D) : None

Answer : (b)

Question-322 : To guide the aircraft and To control the taxing of arriving and departing aircraft on the airfield between apron and runway. It is the function of

(A) : Airway Communication

(B) : Airway Traffic Control

(C) : General or non-airway traffic control

(D) : Airport Traffic Control

Answer : (d)

Question-323 : Regulate the movement of aircraft along the air routes with adequate vertical and lateral separation

(A) : Airport Traffic Control

(B) : Airway Traffic Control

(C) : General or non-airway traffic control

(D) : Airway Communication

Answer : (b)

Question-324 : Air Traffic Control network (1) Control within terminal area (2) Control over airway (3) Airway Communication (4) All above

(A) : (1) and (2)

(B) : (3) only

(C) : (1) and (3)

(D) : -4

Answer : (d)

Question-325 : Information of Magnetic bearing of airport runway provided by___________

(A) : Airway beacon

(B) : Very high Omni-directional range

(C) : Air route surveillance Radar

(D) : Wind cone

Answer : (b)

Question-326 : As per ICAO under Instrument landing system (ILS) provides facilities for landing even when visibility considered as_____________

(A) : Category I : Weather condition which provide visibility at least 800 m

(B) : Category II : Allows landing up to 400 m forward visibility

(C) : Category III : Permits landing under zero visibility condition

(D) : All above

Answer : (d)

Question-327 : It sends radio beam in vertical plane and indicates to the pilot weather he is right or left to correct alignment for approach to the runway

(A) : Glide slope antena

(B) : Localiser

(C) : Beacon

(D) : Very high Omni-directional range

Answer : (b)

Question-328 : Localiser located at center line of runway __________ m from the far end of runway, It sends radio beam in vertical plane and indicates to the pilot weather he is right or left correct alignment for approach to the runway

(A) : 300

(B) : 100

(C) : 50

(D) : 25

Answer : (a)

Question-329 : Localiser antenna emits beam signal in_________________________ and Glide slope antenna transmits radio beam in ______________

(A) : Vertical Plane, Horizontal plane

(B) : Horizontal plane,Vertical Plane

(C) : Vertical Plane

(D) : None

Answer : (a)

Question-330 : Glide slope antenna guide the pilot for correct _______________________of runway during landing

(A) : Corner

(B) : Angle

(C) : Level

(D) : Height

Answer : (b)

Question-331 : Instrument landing system (ILS) consists of (A) Localiser antenna (B) Glide slope antenna (C) Outer and middle marker

(A) : A only

(B) : (A) and (B) only

(C) : (A),(B) and (C)

(D) : (B) and (C) only

Answer : (c)

Question-332 : It is an instrument which provides to the controller at the ATC (Air traffic Control) tower an overall picture of all the aircrafts within the airspace surrounding the terminal

(A) : Localiser

(B) : Glide slope antenna

(C) : Airports surveillance radar

(D) : Beacon

Answer : (c)

Question-333 : Is a runway-safety tool that enables air traffic controllers to detect potential runway conflicts by providing detailed coverage of movement on runways and taxiways

(A) : Glide slope antenna

(B) : Localiser

(C) : Wind cone

(D) : Airport Surface Detection Equipment

Answer : (d)

Question-334 : Colour of runway marking

(A) : Black

(B) : Yellow

(C) : White

(D) : Red

Answer : (c)

Question-335 : Taxiway and Apron marking colour is___________

(A) : Yellow

(B) : White

(C) : Black

(D) : Blue

Answer : (a)

Question-336 : Shoulder marking is diagonal line in runway having color____________

(A) : Yellow

(B) : White

(C) : Black

(D) : Blue

Answer : (a)

Question-337 : Taxiway and holding apron marking are perpendicular to movement of aircraft having color_________________

(A) : Yellow

(B) : White

(C) : Blue

(D) : Black

Answer : (a)

Question-338 : The center line of runway marking having minimum length______________m

(A) : 20 m

(B) : 30 m

(C) : 10 m

(D) : 15 m

Answer : (b)

Question-339 : The center line of runway marking having minimum width ______________m

(A) : 0.9

(B) : 0.6

(C) : 0.45

(D) : 0.5

Answer : (c)

Question-340 : Threshold marking is carried out ____________________m away from the runway end

(A) : 10

(B) : 6

(C) : 5

(D) : 9

Answer : (b)

Question-341 : The minimum length of threshold marking at runway end

(A) : 30 m

(B) : 60 m

(C) : 90 m

(D) : 25 m

Answer : (a)

Question-342 : Touchdown zone marking is carried out with ______________color

(A) : Yellow

(B) : White

(C) : Black

(D) : Blue

Answer : (b)

Question-343 : Runway aiming point marking commences _____________ m from threshold

(A) : 400

(B) : 800

(C) : 1200

(D) : 200

Answer : (a)

Question-344 : Threshold itself lighted with continuous line of _________________ light

(A) : Yellow

(B) : White

(C) : Blue

(D) : Green

Answer : (d)

Question-345 : Stopway Lighting having color

(A) : White

(B) : Green

(C) : Red

(D) : Yellow

Answer : (c)

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