CIVIL ENGINEERING – Design of Steel Structures MCQs

Question-1 : Poisson’s ratio of steel is ________

(A) : 0.1

(B) : 1

(C) : 0.3

(D) : 2

Answer : (c)

Question-2 : Which method is mainly adopted for design of steel structures as per IS code?

(A) : Limit State Method

(B) : Working Stress Method

(C) : Ultimate Load Method

(D) : Earthquake Load Method

Answer : (a)

Question-3 : Which of the following relation is correct?

(A) : Permissible Stress = Yield Stress x Factor of Safety

(B) : Permissible Stress = Yield Stress / Factor of Safety

(C) : Yield Stress = Permissible Stress / Factor of Safety

(D) : Permissible Stress = Yield Stress – Factor of Safety

Answer : (b)

Question-4 : In Working Stress Method, which of the following relation is correct?

(A) : Working Stress ≤ Permissible Stress

(B) : Working Stress ≥ Permissible Stress

(C) : Working Stress = Permissible Stress

(D) : Working Stress > Permissible Stress

Answer : (a)

Question-5 : What is Load Factor?

(A) : Ratio of working load to ultimate load

(B) : Product of working load and ultimate load

(C) : Product of working load and factor of safety

(D) : Ratio of ultimate load to working load

Answer : (d)

Question-6 : Limit State Method is based on _____________

(A) : Calculations on service load conditions alone

(B) : Calculations on ultimate load conditions alone

(C) : Calculations at working loads and ultimate loads

(D) : Calculations on earthquake loads

Answer : (c)

Question-7 : What is limit state?

(A) : Acceptable limits for safety and serviceability requirements before failure occurs.

(B) : Acceptable limits for safety and serviceability requirements after failure occurs.

(C) : Acceptable limits for safety after failure occurs.

(D) : Acceptable limits for serviceability after failure occurs.

Answer : (a)

Question-8 : Which of the following factors is included in the limit state of strength?

(A) : Fire

(B) : Failure by excessive deformation

(C) : Corrosion

(D) : Repairable damage or crack due to fatigue

Answer : (b)

Question-9 : Which of the following factors is included in the limit state of serviceability?

(A) : Brittle fracture

(B) : Fracture due to fatigue

(C) : Failure by excessive deformation

(D) : Deformation and deflection adversely affecting appearance or effective use of structure

Answer : (d)

Question-10 : What is permanent action according to classification of actions by IS code?

(A) : Due to self weight

(B) : Due to construction and service stage loads

(C) : Due to accidents

(D) : Due to earthquake loads

Answer : (a)

Question-11 : What is variable action according to classification of actions by IS code?

(A) : Due to self weight

(B) : Due to accidents

(C) : Due to construction and service stage loads

(D) : Due to earthquake loads

Answer : (c)

Question-12 : Which of the following relation is correct?

(A) : Design Load = Characteristic Load

(B) : Design Load = Characteristic Load + Partial factor of safety

(C) : Design Load = Characteristic Load / Partial factor of safety

(D) : Design Load = Characteristic Load x Partial factor of safety

Answer : (d)

Question-13 : Which of the following relation is correct?

(A) : Design Strength = Ultimate strength + Partial factor of safety

(B) : Design Strength = Ultimate strength – Partial factor of safety

(C) : Design Strength = Ultimate strength /Partial factor of safety

(D) : Design Strength = Ultimate strength x Partial factor of safety

Answer : (c)

Question-14 : Which of the following criteria is to be satisfied in selection of member in limit state method?

(A) : Factored Load > Factored Strength

(B) : Factored Load ≤ Factored Strength

(C) : Factored Load ≥ Factored Strength

(D) : Sometimes Factored Load < Factored Strength (or) Factored Load > Factored Strength

Answer : (b)

Question-15 : The partial factor of safety for resistance governed by yielding is :

(A) : 1.1

(B) : 1.5

(C) : 2

(D) : 1.25

Answer : (a)

Question-16 : The partial factor of safety for resistance governed by ultimate strength is :

(A) : 1.1

(B) : 1.5

(C) : 2

(D) : 1.25

Answer : (d)

Question-17 : What is P-Δ effect?

(A) : Earthquake load

(B) : Second order moments arising from joint displaced

(C) : Second order moments arising from member deflection

(D) : Load due to shrinkage effect

Answer : (b)

Question-18 : Match the pair: (A) Mass and gravitational effect (i) wind load (B) Mass and acceleration effect (ii) load due to settlement (C) Environmental effects (iii) imposed load

(A) : A-i, B-ii, C-iii

(B) : A-iii, B-ii, C-i

(C) : A-iii, B-i, C-ii

(D) : A-ii, B-iii, C-i

Answer : (c)

Question-19 : What is characteristic load?

(A) : Seismic load

(B) : Load which will be exceeded by certain probability during life of structure

(C) : Load which will not be exceeded by certain probability during life of structure

(D) : Pressure load

Answer : (c)

Question-20 : Which of the following is not included in imposed load classification?

(A) : Residential load

(B) : Earthquake load

(C) : Industrial load

(D) : Educational load

Answer : (b)

Question-21 : What is the minimum imposed load on roof trusses as per IS code?

(A) : 0.5

(B) : 0.4

(C) : 0.9

(D) : 0.75

Answer : (b)

Question-22 : For roofs of slope greater than 10˚, the imposed load is reduced by ____ for every degree rise in slope.

(A) : 0.02

(B) : 0.05

(C) : 0.75

(D) : 0.5

Answer : (a)

Question-23 : Calculate imposed load on roof truss of span 20m with slope of

(A) : 0.75

(B) : 0.95

(C) : 0.45

(D) : 0.55

Answer : (d)

Question-24 : Which IS Code is used for designing a Industrial building considering earthquake loads?

(A) : IS 800

(B) : IS 875

(C) : IS 1893 (Part-2)

(D) : IS 1893 (Part-1)

Answer : (d)

Question-25 : For earthquake loads, axially loaded members have to resist ________________

(A) : Tension only

(B) : Compression only

(C) : Both tension and compression

(D) : Bending moment

Answer : (c)

Question-26 : Which of the following factors does not influence earthquake resistance design?

(A) : Geographical location of structure

(B) : Wind of location

(C) : Site soil Condition

(D) : Strength of structure

Answer : (b)

Question-27 : Structures should be designed such that ___________

(A) : Minor and frequent earthquakes can collapse the structure

(B) : Moderate earthquakes can cause damage to the structure

(C) : Major earthquakes should not cause any damage to the structure and the structure should be functional

(D) : Minor earthquake should not cause any damage to the structure and the structure should be functional

Answer : (d)

Question-28 : Which of the following assumption is correct for earthquake design resistant structure?

(A) : Earthquake will not occur simultaneously with wind

(B) : Earthquake will occur simultaneously with maximum flood

(C) : Earthquake will occur simultaneously with maximum sea waves

(D) : Earthquake will occur simultaneously with wind

Answer : (a)

Question-29 : What is structural response factor?

(A) : Factor denoting the acceleration response spectrum of the structure subjected to earthquake ground vibrations

(B) : Factor by which the actual base shear force is reduced

(C) : Factor to obtain the design spectrum

(D) : Factor used to obtain the design seismic force

Answer : (a)

Question-30 : Internal pressure coefficient in a building is positive if acting from ________ and external pressure coefficient in a building is positive if acting from ___________

(A) : Outside to inside, inside to outside

(B) : Inside to outside, outside to inside

(C) : Outside to inside, outside to inside

(D) : Inside to outside, inside to outside

Answer : (b)

Question-31 : IS Code gives basic wind speed averaged over a short interval of ______

(A) : 10 seconds

(B) : 20 seconds

(C) : 5 seconds

(D) : 3 seconds

Answer : (d)

Question-32 : Positive sign of pressure coefficient indicates ______________

(A) : Pressure acting towards the surface

(B) : Pressure acting away the surface

(C) : Pressure acting above the surface

(D) : Pressure acting below the surface

Answer : (a)

Question-33 : Wind Pressure at any height of structure does not depend on _______

(A) : Velocity and density of air

(B) : Angle of wind attack

(C) : Angle of wind attack

(D) : Material of structure

Answer : (d)

Question-34 : Calculate design wind speed for a site in a city with basic wind speed of 50 m/s, risk coefficient =1, topography factor = 1, terrain is with closely spaced buildings and height of building (class A) = 15 m.

(A) : 40 m/s

(B) : 48.5 m/s

(C) : 50 m/s

(D) : 52.5 m/s

Answer : (b)

Question-35 : Calculate the design wind pressure if the basic wind speed is 44 m/s, risk coefficient is 1, topography factor is 1, terrain is with closely spaced buildings and height of building(class A) = 20 m.

(A) : 1285

(B) : 1580

(C) : 1085

(D) : 1185

Answer : (d)

Question-36 : What is the partial safety factor for combination of DL+LL for limit state of strength, where DL=Dead load, LL=imposed load?

(A) : 1.2

(B) : 1

(C) : 0.8

(D) : 1.5

Answer : (d)

Question-37 : Which of the following load combination is not possible?

(A) : Dead load + Imposed load + Wind load

(B) : Dead load + Imposed load + Earthquake load

(C) : Dead load + Wind load + Earthquake load

(D) : Dead load + Imposed load

Answer : (c)

Question-38 : What is the partial safety factor for Dead load in combination of DL+LL+WL/EL for limit state of serviceability, where DL=Dead load, LL=Imposed load , WL=Wind load, EL=Earthquake load ?

(A) : 1

(B) : 0.8

(C) : 1.5

(D) : 1.2

Answer : (a)

Question-39 : What is the partial safety factor for dead load in combination of DL+ WL/EL for limit state of serviceability, where DL=Dead load, WL=wind load, EL=earthquake load?

(A) : 1

(B) : 1.5

(C) : 1.2

(D) : 0.8

Answer : (a)

Question-40 : What is the partial safety factor for imposed load in combination of DL+LL+AL , where DL=Dead load, WL=Wind load, AL=Accidental load ?

(A) : 1

(B) : 0.5

(C) : 0.4

(D) : 0.35

Answer : (d)

Question-41 : What percent of factored load is notional horizontal force?

(A) : 0.50%

(B) : 1%

(C) : 10%

(D) : 20%

Answer : (a)

Question-42 : Select the correct statement

(A) : Material cost of a rivet is higher than that of a bolt.

(B) : Tensile strength of a bolt is lesser than that of a rivet.

(C) : Bolts are used as a temporary fastening whereas rivets are used as permanent fastenings.

(D) : Riveting is less noisy than bolting.

Answer : (c)

Question-43 : The effective length of a fillet weld should not be less than

(A) : Two times the weld size

(B) : Four times the weld size

(C) : Six times the weld size

(D) : Weld size

Answer : (b)

Question-44 : When the bolts are subjected to reversal of stresses, the most suitable type of bolt is

(A) : Black bolt

(B) : Ordinary unfinished bolt

(C) : Turned and fitted bolt

(D) : High strength bolt

Answer : (d)

Question-45 : Pick up the correct statement from the following:

(A) : The minimum pitch should not be less than 2.5 times the nominal diameter of the bolt.

(B) : The minimum pitch should not be less than 12 times the nominal diameter of the bolt.

(C) : The maximum pitch should not exceed 10 times the thickness or 150 mm whichever is less in compression.

(D) : All the above.

Answer : (a)

Question-46 : In a tension member if one or more than one bolt holes are off the line, the failure of the member depends upon:

(A) : Pitch

(B) : Gauge

(C) : Diameter of the bolt holes

(D) : All the above

Answer : (d)

Question-47 : By providing sufficient edge distance, which of the following failures of bolted joint can be avoided?

(A) : Tension failure of the plate

(B) : Shear failure of the bolt

(C) : Shear failure of the plate

(D) : Bearing failure of the bolt

Answer : (c)

Question-48 : The main type of butt joints, is a double cover

(A) : Shear bolted joint

(B) : Chain bolted joint

(C) : Zig-zag bolted joint

(D) : All the above

Answer : (d)

Question-49 : What is the yield strength of bolt of class 4.6?

(A) : 400 N/mm2

(B) : 240 N/mm2

(C) : 250 N/mm2

(D) : 500 N/mm2

Answer : (b)

Question-50 : High strength bolt is used for ____________

(A) : shear connection

(B) : slip resistant connection only

(C) : bearing type connection only

(D) : both slip resistant and bearing type connection

Answer : (d)

Question-51 : Which of the following is correct for pitch of the bolts and gauge?

(A) : pitch is measured along direction of load, gauge is measured perpendicular to direction of load

(B) : pitch is measured perpendicular direction of load, gauge is measured along to direction of load

(C) : pitch is measured along direction of load, gauge is measured along to direction of load

(D) : pitch is measured perpendicular direction of load, gauge is measured perpendicular to direction of load

Answer : (a)

Question-52 : In case of staggered pitch, pitch may be increased by ______

(A) : 50%

(B) : 20%

(C) : 100%

(D) : 30%

Answer : (a)

Question-53 : What is the difference between end and edge distance?

(A) : Edge distance is measured parallel to direction of stress, while end distance is measured perpendicular to direction of stress.

(B) : Edge distance is measured parallel to direction of stress, while end distance is measured parallel to direction of stress.

(C) : Edge distance is measured perpendicular to direction of stress, while end distance is measured perpendicular to direction of stress.

(D) : Edge distance is measured perpendicular to direction of stress, while end distance is measured parallel to direction of stress.

Answer : (d)

Question-54 : Maximum gauge length is _________

(A) : 100+4t, where t is thickness of thinner plate

(B) : 100-4t, where t is thickness of thinner plate

(C) : 4t, where t is thickness of thinner plate

(D) : 100mm

Answer : (a)

Question-55 : Minimum edge distance and end distance for rolled, machine flame cut is

(A) : 1.7 x hole diameter

(B) : 1.2 x hole diameter

(C) : 1.5 x hole diameter

(D) : 2.0 x hole diameter

Answer : (c)

Question-56 : Maximum edge distance should not exceed ______

(A) : 10tε, where ε = √(250/fy), t = thickness of thinner outer plate

(B) : 20tε, where ε = √(250/fy), t = thickness of thinner outer plat

(C) : 16tε, where ε = √(250/fy), t = thickness of thinner outer plate

(D) : 12tε, where ε = √(250/fy), t = thickness of thinner outer plate

Answer : (d)

Question-57 : The maximum number of bolts of diameter 25mm that can be accomodated in one row in 200mm wide flat are:

(A) : 2

(B) : 3

(C) : 4

(D) : 5

Answer : (b)

Question-58 : Calculate strength in shear of 16mm diameter of bolt of grade 4.6 for lap joint

(A) : 50 kN

(B) : 40 kN

(C) : 29 kN

(D) : 59 kN

Answer : (c)

Question-59 : What is the value of kb in nominal bearing strength for a bolt of 20mm diameter of grade 4.6?

(A) : 0.5

(B) : 1

(C) : 0.97

(D) : 2

Answer : (a)

Question-60 : Calculate bearing strength of 20mm diameter bolt of grade 4.6 for joining main plates of 10mm thick using cover plate of 8mm thick using single cover butt joint.

(A) : 70.26 kN

(B) : 109.82 kN

(C) : 50.18 kN

(D) : 29.56 kN

Answer : (c)

Question-61 : Find the number of HSFG bolts of diameter 20mm, grade 88 for connection of member carrying factored tensile load of 200kN when no slip is permitted.

(A) : 5

(B) : 4

(C) : 3

(D) : 2

Answer : (b)

Question-62 : What is the efficiency of joint when strength of bolt per pitch length is 60kN and strength of plate per pitch length is 150kN?

(A) : 25%

(B) : 30%

(C) : 35%

(D) : 40%

Answer : (d)

Question-63 : Strength of bolt is

(A) : minimum of shear strength and bearing capacity of bolt

(B) : maximum of shear strength and bearing capacity of bolt

(C) : shear strength of bolt

(D) : bearing capacity of bolt

Answer : (a)

Question-64 : Prying forces are

(A) : Friction Forces

(B) : Shear Forces

(C) : Tensile Forces

(D) : Bending Forces

Answer : (c)

Question-65 : Pin connections are provided when _______ required.

(A) : hinge joint

(B) : fixed joint

(C) : irrotational joint

(D) : rigid joint

Answer : (a)

Question-66 : In which of the following cases pin connections are not used?

(A) : truss bridge girders

(B) : hinged arches

(C) : tall buildings

(D) : diagonal bracing connection

Answer : (c)

Question-67 : Simple connections are used to transmit ______

(A) : Forces

(B) : Moments

(C) : Stresses

(D) : Both force and moment

Answer : (a)

Question-68 : Which of the following statement is true?

(A) : Lap joint eliminates eccentricity of applied load, butt joint results in eccentricity at connection

(B) : Lap joint and butt joint eliminates eccentricity at connection

(C) : Lap joint results in eccentricity of applied load, butt joint eliminates eccentricity at connection

(D) : Lap joint and butt joint results in eccentricity of applied load

Answer : (c)

Question-69 : In a lap joint, at least __________ bolts should be provided in a line.

(B) : 1

(C) : 2

(D) : 3

Answer : (c)

Question-70 : Use of lap joints is not recommended because

(A) : Stresses are distributed unevenly

(B) : Eccentricity is eliminated

(C) : Bolts are in double shear

(D) : No bending is produced

Answer : (a)

Question-71 : Why is double cover butt joint preferred over single cover butt joint or lap joint?

(A) : Bolts are in single shear

(B) : Eliminates eccentricity

(C) : Bending in bolts

(D) : Shear force is not transmitted

Answer : (b)

Question-72 : Clip and seating angle connection is provided for

(A) : Lateral support

(B) : Bending support

(C) : Frictional support

(D) : Hinged support

Answer : (a)

Question-73 : Moment Resistant Connections transfer (i) Moments, (ii)Axial force, (iii)shear force

(A) : i only

(B) : i and ii

(C) : ii and iii

(D) : i, ii and iii

Answer : (d)

Question-74 : The effect of twisting moment and shear force on the bolt group cause ____ whereas bending moment and shear force cause ________

(A) : Shear force on the bolts, tension and shear in the bolt

(B) : Tension and shear in the bolt, shear force on the bolts

(C) : Shear force on the bolts, shear force on the bolts

(D) : Tension and shear in the bolt, tension and shear in the bolt

Answer : (a)

Question-75 : Clip angle connection are designed to

(A) : Transfer small end moments in addition to large end shear

(B) : Transfer large end shear only

(C) : Transfer small end moments only

(D) : Transfer bending moments

Answer : (a)

Question-76 : Which of the following is true about bracket connections?

(A) : More rigid than any other connection.

(B) : Fabrication cost is low.

(C) : These connections are used to accommodate less number of bolts.

(D) : They are used to give aesthetic appearance to the structure.

Answer : (a)

Question-77 : In bolted moment end plate connection, bending moment , axial force and shear force are transferred by

(A) : Tension only

(B) : Compression only

(C) : Tension and compression

(D) : Friction

Answer : (c)

Question-78 : Which of the following connections can be used for beam-beam connection?

(A) : Pin Connection

(B) : Moment Resistant Connection

(C) : Simple Connection

(D) : Complex Connection

Answer : (c)

Question-79 : In practice, secondary beams are connected to main beams by ______

(A) : Web cleats

(B) : Bolts

(C) : Seating angle

(D) : Web cleats and bolts

Answer : (a)

Question-80 : When cantilever beam is supported by girder, the end of cantilever will transfer

(A) : Shear force

(B) : Torsion

(C) : Bending moment

(D) : Shear force and Bending moment

Answer : (d)

Question-81 : Which of the following type of weld is most suitable for lap and T-joints?

(A) : Fillet weld

(B) : Groove weld

(C) : Slot weld

(D) : Plug weld

Answer : (a)

Question-82 : Which of the following are correct regarding butt joints over lap joints?

(A) : Lap joints eliminates eccentricity whereas butt joints develops eccentricity.

(B) : Butt joints minimizes the size of connection.

(C) : Lap joints are aesthetically pleasing over butt joints.

(D) : Butt joint obtained from full penetration groove weld has 50% efficiency.

Answer : (b)

Question-83 : Which of the following is not true regarding lap joint?

(A) : Connection using lap joint requires large number of erection bolts.

(B) : It can accommodate minor errors in fabrication.

(C) : Lap joints are well suited for shop as well as field welding.

(D) : It introduces some eccentricity of loads.

Answer : (a)

Question-84 : T-joints are not used to fabricate _________

(A) : I-shapes

(B) : T-shapes

(C) : Brackets

(D) : Plates joined at straight angles

Answer : (d)

Question-85 : Match the pair Types of joints Use / Application A) Butt joint i) used to keep two or more plats in given plane B) Lap joint ii) used to join ends of flat plates of nearly equal thickness C) Tee joint iii) used to form built-up rectangular box sections D) Corner joint iv) used to fabricate built-up sections E) Edge joint v) plates with different thickness can be joined without any difficulty

(A) : A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv, E-v

(B) : A-ii, B-v, C-iv, D-iii, E-i

(C) : A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-v, E-i

(D) : A-v, B-iv, C-iii, D-ii, E-i

Answer : (b)

Question-86 : The minimum size of fillet weld should _______

(A) : not be less than 3mm

(B) : be less than 3mm

(C) : be less than 2mm

(D) : greater than thickness of thinner part joined

Answer : (a)

Question-87 : The maximum size of fillet weld is obtained by _______

(A) : Adding 1.5 mm to thickness of thinner member to be jointed

(B) : Adding 3 mm to thickness of thinner member to be jointed

(C) : Subtracting 3 mm from thickness of thinner member to be jointed

(D) : Subtracting 1.5 mm from thickness of thinner member to be jointed

Answer : (d)

Question-88 : What is the minimum specified length of fillet weld?

(A) : Two times the size of weld

(B) : Four times the size of weld

(C) : Six times the size of weld

(D) : Half the size of weld

Answer : (b)

Question-89 : Effective length of fillet weld is _______

(A) : Equal to overall length plus twice the weld size

(B) : Twice the overall length plus twice the weld size

(C) : Equal to overall length minus twice the weld size

(D) : Twice the overall length minus twice the weld size

Answer : (c)

Question-90 : Which of the following is not true regarding effective throat thickness of weld?

(A) : Effective throat thickness should not be less than 3 mm.

(B) : It should not exceed 0.7t or 1t, where t is thickness of thinner plate of elements being welded.

(C) : Effective throat thickness = K x size of weld, where K is a constant

(D) : Effective throat thickness = K x , where K is a constant

Answer : (d)

Question-91 : The clear spacing between effective lengths of intermittent welds should not be ______

(A) : Less than 16t in case of tension joint, where t is thickness of thinner plate

(B) : Less than 12t in case of compression joint, where t is thickness of thinner plate

(C) : Less than 20t in case of tension joint, where t is thickness of thinner plate

(D) : Less than 20t in case of compression joint, where t is thickness of thinner plate

Answer : (a)

Question-92 : Generally the purlins are placed at the panel points so as to avoid

(A) : Axial force in rafter

(B) : Shear force in rafter

(C) : Deflection of rafter

(D) : Bending moment in rafter

Answer : (d)

Question-93 : The maximum permissible span of asbestos cement sheets is

(A) : 650 mm

(B) : 810 mm

(C) : 1250 mm

(D) : 1680 mm

Answer : (d)

Question-94 : Generally, the purlins are placed at the panel points so as to avoid_________

(A) : Axial force in rafter

(B) : Shear force in rafter

(C) : Deflection of rafter

(D) : Bending moment in rafter

Answer : (d)

Question-95 : The maximum permissible span of asbestos cement sheets is

(A) : 650 mm

(B) : 810 mm

(C) : 1250 mm

(D) : 1680 mm

Answer : (d)

Question-96 : The live load for a sloping roof with slope 15°, where access is not provided to roof, is taken as

(A) : 0.65

(B) : 0.75

(C) : 1.35

(D) : 1.5

Answer : (a)

Question-97 : Area of openings for buildings of large permeability is more than

(A) : 10% of wall area

(B) : 20% of wall area

(C) : 30% of wall area

(D) : 50% of wall area

Answer : (b)

Question-98 : Main function of purlins is __________

(A) : To provide access to roof.

(B) : To support two adjacent roof truss.

(C) : To support the roofing material.

(D) : All of the above.

Answer : (c)

Question-99 : The minimum recommended rise of trusses with Galvanised Iron sheets is

(A) : 1 in 12

(B) : 1 in 6

(C) : 1 in 10

(D) : 1 in 18

Answer : (b)

Question-100 : The minimum recommended rise of trusses with asbestos cement sheets is

(A) : 1 in 12

(B) : 1 in 6

(C) : 1 in 10

(D) : 1 in 18

Answer : (a)

Question-101 : Live load for roof truss should not be less than

(A) : 0.4

(B) : 0.2

(C) : 0.75

(D) : 0.8

Answer : (a)

Question-102 : Which of the following load combination is not considered for design of roof trusses?

(A) : Dead load + crane load

(B) : Dead load + wind load

(C) : Dead load + earthquake load

(D) : Dead load + live load + wind load

Answer : (c)

Question-103 : The economic spacing of roof truss depends on

(A) : Cost of purlins only.

(B) : Cost of purlins and cost of roof covering.

(C) : Dead loads.

(D) : Cost of roof covering and dead loads.

Answer : (b)

Question-104 : Which of the following is true for economic spacing?

(A) : Cost of trusses should be equal to twice the cost of purlins.

(B) : Cost of trusses should be equal to twice the cost of purlins minus cost of roof coverings.

(C) : Cost of trusses should be equal to the cost of purlins plus cost of roof coverings.

(D) : Cost of trusses should be equal to twice the cost of purlins plus cost of roof coverings.

Answer : (d)

Question-105 : Allowable deflection for Purlin sections supporting Galvanised Iron sheets is _______

(A) : Span/150

(B) : Span/180

(C) : Span/300

(D) : Span/240

Answer : (a)

Question-106 : Allowable deflection for Purlin sections supporting Asbestos Cement sheets is _______

(A) : Span/150

(B) : Span/180

(C) : Span/300

(D) : Span/240

Answer : (b)

Question-107 : Allowable deflection for Truss supporting Galvanised Iron sheets is _______

(A) : Span/150

(B) : Span/180

(C) : Span/240

(D) : Span/300

Answer : (c)

Question-108 : Allowable deflection for Truss supporting Asbestos Cement sheets is _______

(A) : Span/150

(B) : Span/180

(C) : Span/240

(D) : Span/300

Answer : (d)

Question-109 : A tension member, if subjected to possible reversal of stress due to wind, the slenderness ratio of the member should not exceed ________

(A) : 180

(B) : 200

(C) : 300

(D) : 350

Answer : (a)

Question-110 : Gantry girders are designed to resist

(A) : Lateral loads

(B) : Longitudinal loads and vertical loads

(C) : Lateral, longitudinal and vertical loads

(D) : Lateral and longitudinal loads

Answer : (c)

Question-111 : Which of the following is correct regarding gantry girders?

(A) : It is laterally supported except at the columns.

(B) : It is subjected to impact load.

(C) : It should not be analysed for unsymmetrical bending.

(D) : It is not subjected to longitudinal load.

Answer : (b)

Question-112 : Which of the following loads are not considered in the design of gantry girders?

(A) : Longitudinal loads

(B) : Gravity loads

(C) : Lateral loads

(D) : Wind loads

Answer : (d)

Question-113 : For gantry girders carrying electrically operated overhead travelling cranes, the lateral forces are increased by ____ for impact allowance.

(A) : 10% of weight of crab and weight lifted on the crane

(B) : 20% of weight of crab and weight lifted on the crane

(C) : 25% of maximum static wheel load

(D) : 50% of maximum static wheel load

Answer : (a)

Question-114 : For gantry girders carrying hand operated cranes, the vertical forces are increased by____ for impact allowance.

(A) : 10% of maximum static wheel load.

(B) : 25% of maximum static wheel load.

(C) : 10% of weight of crab and weight lifted on the crane.

(D) : 20% of weight of crab and weight lifted on the crane.

Answer : (c)

Question-115 : The maximum wheel load is obtained when

(A) : Crane crab is farthest to gantry girder.

(B) : Crane crab is closest to gantry girder.

(C) : Crane crab is not attached.

(D) : Crane crab is at mid span.

Answer : (b)

Question-116 : The bending moment due to dead load of girder is maximum at

(A) : One-third distance at span.

(B) : Two-third distance at span.

(C) : End of span.

(D) : Centre of span.

Answer : (d)

Question-117 : What is the maximum vertical deflection allowed for a gantry girder where the cranes are manually operated?

(A) : L/500

(B) : L/700

(C) : L/600

(D) : L/800

Answer : (a)

Question-118 : What is the maximum vertical deflection allowed for a gantry girder where the cranes are electrically operated?

(A) : Span/500

(B) : Span/350

(C) : Span/750

(D) : Span/950

Answer : (c)

Question-119 : Additional Impact load on electrically operated crane for vertical forces transferred to wheels is __________

(A) : 25 % of maximum static wheel load

(B) : 10 % of maximum static wheel load

(C) : 5 % of maximum static wheel load

(D) : None of the above

Answer : (a)

Question-120 : Additional Impact load on hand operated crane for vertical forces transferred to wheels is __________

(A) : 25 % of maximum static wheel load

(B) : 10 % of maximum static wheel load

(C) : 5 % of maximum static wheel load

(D) : None of the above.

Answer : (b)

Question-121 : Additional Impact load on hand operated crane for horizontal forces transverse to rails is __________

(A) : 25 % of the weight of the crab and the weight lifted by cranes.

(B) : 10 % of the weight of the crab and the weight lifted by cranes.

(C) : 5 % of the weight of the crab and the weight lifted by cranes.

(D) : None of the above.

Answer : (c)

Question-122 : Additional Impact load on electrically operated crane for horizontal forces transverse to rails is __________

(A) : 25 % of the weight of the crab and the weight lifted by cranes.

(B) : 10 % of maximum static wheel load.

(C) : 5 % of the weight of the crab and the weight lifted by cranes.

(D) : 10 % of the weight of the crab and the weight lifted by cranes.

Answer : (d)

Question-123 : Additional Impact load on overhead cranes for Horizontal forces along the rails________

(A) : 5 % of all static wheel load.

(B) : 5 % of maximum static wheel load.

(C) : 10 % of the weight of the crab and the weight lifted by cranes.

(D) : 5 % of the weight of the crab and the weight lifted by cranes.

Answer : (a)

Question-124 : Surge load is generated by_________

(A) : Vertical load generated by weight of crane.

(B) : Braking or acceleration of crane.

(C) : Braking or acceleration of trolly.

(D) : None of Above.

Answer : (c)

Question-125 : Nature of Surge load on Gantry girder is______

(A) : Lateral load

(B) : Gravity load

(C) : Longitudinal load

(D) : Dynamic load

Answer : (a)

Question-126 : Drag load on Gantry girder is generated by_________

(A) : Vertical load generated by weight of crane and trolly.

(B) : Braking or acceleration of crane.

(C) : Braking or acceleration of trolly.

(D) : All of above.

Answer : (b)

Question-127 : Nature of Drag load on Gantry girder is______

(A) : Lateral load

(B) : Area load

(C) : Longitudinal load

(D) : Gravity load

Answer : (c)

Question-128 : The surge load is assumed to be resisted by the ___________

(A) : whole cross section.

(B) : compression flange alone.

(C) : compression and tension flanges.

(D) : cross section above neutral axis.

Answer : (b)

Question-129 : A plate girder is used when

(A) : Span is large and loads are heavy.

(B) : Span is small and loads are heavy.

(C) : Span is small and loads are light.

(D) : Span is large and loads are light.

Answer : (a)

Question-130 : Why plate girder is preferred over truss girder?

(A) : Plate girder requires costly maintenance.

(B) : Higher vertical clearance required for plate girder than truss girder.

(C) : Cost of fabrication of plate girder is high.

(D) : Cost of fabrication of truss girder is high.

Answer : (d)

Question-131 : Bending resistance of plate girders can be increased by

(A) : Decreasing distance between flanges

(B) : Increasing distance between flanges

(C) : Reducing distance between flanges to half

(D) : Bending resistance cannot be increased

Answer : (b)

Question-132 : Which of the following is economical if depth is limited and loads are too large?

(A) : Rolled section beam

(B) : Truss girder

(C) : Welded box plate girder

(D) : Bolted box plate girder

Answer : (c)

Question-133 : An ideal bolted plate girder section consists of

(A) : Flange angles and cover plates for both compression flange and tension flange.

(B) : Flange angles and cover plates for compression flange and only flange angle for tension flange.

(C) : Only flange angle for compression flange and flange angles and cover plates for tension flange.

(D) : Flange angles for both compression flange and tension flange.

Answer : (b)

Question-134 : The modes of failure of plate girder are

(A) : By yielding of compression flange only

(B) : By buckling of tension flange only

(C) : By yielding of tension flange and buckling of compression flange

(D) : By yielding of compression flange and buckling of tension flange

Answer : (c)

Question-135 : At high shear locations in the girder web, principal plane will be ______ to longitudinal axis of member

(A) : Inclined

(B) : Parallel

(C) : Perpendicular

(D) : Coincides

Answer : (a)

Question-136 : Which of the following causes web buckling in plate girder?

(A) : Diagonal tension

(B) : Diagonal compression

(C) : Diagonal tension and diagonal compression

(D) : Neither diagonal tension nor diagonal compression

Answer : (b)

Question-137 : Which of the following statement is correct for reducing web buckling due to diagonal compression?

(A) : Not providing web stiffeners to increase shear strength

(B) : Providing web stiffeners to reduce shear strength

(C) : Increasing depth-to-thickness ratio

(D) : Reducing depth-to-thickness ratio

Answer : (d)

Question-138 : Which of the following is correct during tension field action?

(A) : Web can resist diagonal compression.

(B) : Horizontal component of diagonal compression is supported by flanges.

(C) : Vertical component of diagonal compression is supported by flanges.

(D) : Vertical component of diagonal compression is supported by web.

Answer : (b)

Question-139 : Which of the statement is not true about intermediate stiffeners?

(A) : They reduce shear capacity of web.

(B) : They improve shear capacity of web.

(C) : They can be used to develop tension field action.

(D) : Their main purpose is to provide stiffness to the web.

Answer : (a)

Question-140 : The depth-to-thickness ratio of web connected to flanges along one longitudinal edge only when transverse stiffeners are not provided is _____ to meet serviceability criteria.

(A) : > 180ε

(B) : ≥ 90ε

(C) : ≤ 90ε

(D) : > 90ε

Answer : (c)

Question-141 : The depth-to-thickness ratio of web when only transverse stiffeners are provided and 3d ≥ c ≥d, where c is clear distance between stiffeners and d is depth of web is_____ to meet serviceability criteria

(A) : ≤ 200

(B) : ≥ 200

(C) : > 200

(D) : ≤ 400

Answer : (a)

Question-142 : The depth-to-thickness ratio of web when only transverse stiffeners are provided and c < 0.74d, where c is clear distance between stiffeners and d is depth of web is_____ to meet serviceability criteria.

(A) : ≤ 200

(B) : ≥ 270

(C) : > 200

(D) : ≤ 270

Answer : (d)

Question-143 : What is the range of c to meet serviceability criteria when transverse and longitudinal stiffeners are provided at one level only, at 0.2d from compression flange and c/ ≤ 250 ?

(A) : c < 0.74d

(B) : 0.74d ≤ c ≤ d

(C) : c ≥ d

(D) : c > 2d

Answer : (b)

Question-144 : When second longitudinal stiffener is provided, d/ to meet serviceability criteria is

(A) : ≤ 400

(B) : ≥ 400

(C) : > 800

(D) : ≤ 800

Answer : (a)

Question-145 : When a plate girder bends, vertical compression in web is due to

(A) : Downward vertical component of compression flange bending stress only.

(B) : Downward vertical component of tension flange bending stress only.

(C) : Downward vertical component of compression flange and upward vertical component of tension flange bending stress.

(D) : Upward vertical component of compression flange and downward vertical component of tension flange bending stress.

Answer : (c)

Question-146 : The d/ should be ___ to avoid buckling of compression flange into web when transverse stiffeners are not provided

(A) : ≥ 500

(B) : ≤ 345

(C) : ≥ 345

(D) : ≤ 500

Answer : (b)

Question-147 : When only transverse stiffeners are provided and d/ < 345 to meet compression flange buckling criteria, the range of c should be

(A) : c ≥ 4.5d

(B) : c > 3d

(C) : c > 1.5d

(D) : c < 1.5d

Answer : (d)

Question-148 : Which of the following angle should be ideally used in bolted plate girder flange?

(A) : Bulb angle

(B) : Equal angle

(C) : Unequal angle with short leg horizontal

(D) : Unequal angle with long leg horizontal

Answer : (d)

Question-149 : Flange cover plates are used in plate girder when

(A) : Flange cover plates are not used.

(B) : For aesthetic appearance.

(C) : When moment resisting capacity has to be increased.

(D) : When moment resisting capacity has to be decreased.

Answer : (c)

Question-150 : The forces acting on the web splice of a plate girder are

(A) : Axial forces

(B) : Shear and axial forces

(C) : Shear and bending forces

(D) : Axial and bending forces

Answer : (c)

Question-151 : The thickness of the web of a mild steel plate girder is less than d/200. If only one horizontal stiffener is used, it is placed at

(A) : The neutral axis of the section.

(B) : 2/3rd of the depth of the neutral axis from the compression flange

(C) : 2/5th of the depth of the neutral axis from the compression flange

(D) : 2/5th of the height of the neutral axis from tension flange

Answer : (c)

Question-152 : Shear buckling of web in a plate girder is prevented by using

(A) : Vertical intermediate stiffener

(B) : Horizontal stiffener at neutral axis

(C) : Bearing stiffener

(D) : None of the above

Answer : (a)

Question-153 : Stiffeners are used in a plate girder

(A) : To reduce the compressive stress

(B) : To reduce the shear stress

(C) : To take the bearing stress

(D) : To avoid bulking of web plate

Answer : (d)

Question-154 : The distance between c.g. of compression and c.g. of tension flanges of a plate girder, is known as

(A) : Overall depth

(B) : Clear depth

(C) : Effective depth

(D) : None of these

Answer : (c)

Question-155 : Bearing stiffener in a plate girder is used to

(A) : Transfer the load from the top flange to the bottom one

(B) : Prevent buckling of web

(C) : Decrease the effective depth of web

(D) : Prevent excessive deflection

Answer : (b)

Question-156 : In case horizontal stiffeners are not used, the distance between vertical legs of flange angles at the top and bottom of a plate girder, is known as

(A) : Overall depth

(B) : Clear depth

(C) : Effective depth

(D) : None of these

Answer : (b)

Question-157 : Intermediate vertical stiffeners in a plate girder need be provided if the depth of web exceeds

(A) : 50 x thickness of web

(B) : 85 x thickness of web

(C) : 200 x thickness of web

(D) : 250 x thickness of web

Answer : (b)

Question-158 : Bearing stiffeners are provided at (i) The supports (ii) The mid span (iii) The point of application of concentrated loads The correct answer is

(A) : Only (i)

(B) : Both (i) and (ii)

(C) : Both (i) and (iii)

(D) : (i), (ii) and (iii)

Answer : (c)

Question-159 : Web crippling generally occurs at the point where

(A) : Bending moment is maximum

(B) : Shearing force is minimum

(C) : Concentrated loads act

(D) : Deflection is maximum

Answer : (c)

Question-160 : Minimum thickness of web in a plate girder, when the plate is accessible and also exposed to weather, is

(A) : 5 mm

(B) : 6 mm

(C) : 8 mm

(D) : 10 mm

Answer : (b)

Question-161 : For simply supported beams, the maximum permitted deflection, is

(A) : 1/325 of the span

(B) : 1/350 of the span

(C) : 1/375 of the span

(D) : 1/400 of the span

Answer : (a)

Question-162 : The distance between the outer faces of flanges of a plate girder, is known as

(A) : Overall depth

(B) : Clear depth

(C) : Effective depth

(D) : None of these

Answer : (a)

Question-163 : When the depth of a plate girder is at least ‘n’ times the depth of vertical leg of the flange angles, the girder is known as deep plate girder, if ‘n’ is

(A) : 2

(B) : 4

(C) : 6

(D) : 8

Answer : (d)

Question-164 : Pick up the correct statement from the following:

(A) : Vertical stiffeners may be placed in pairs one on each side of the web.

(B) : Single vertical stiffeners may be placed alternately on opposite sides of the web.

(C) : Horizontal stiffeners may be placed alternately on opposite sides of the web.

(D) : All the above.

Answer : (d)

Question-165 : The greatest permissible clear dimension of the web of thickness t in the panel of a plate girder, is restricted to

(A) : 180 t

(B) : 220 t

(C) : 230 t

(D) : 270 t

Answer : (d)

Question-166 : What will happen when d/ is sufficiently low?

(A) : Web will yield under buckling before shear.

(B) : Web will yield under shear before buckling.

(C) : Web will not yield under shear.

(D) : Web will not yield under both shear and buckling.

Answer : (b)

Question-167 : What is the purpose of rakers?

(A) : To support truss laterally.

(B) : To support only top chord members of truss.

(C) : To connect cross-beam with truss.

(D) : All of above.

Answer : (a)

Question-168 : Forces in top chord members in truss bridges are _________

(A) : Tension

(B) : Compression

(C) : Flexural

(D) : None

Answer : (b)

Question-169 : Forces in bottom chord members in truss bridges are _________

(A) : Flexural

(B) : Tension

(C) : Compression

(D) : Shear

Answer : (b)

Question-170 : Forces in vertical/diagonal members in truss bridges are _________

(A) : Compression, Tension and Torsion

(B) : Tension and Torsion

(C) : Compression and Torsion

(D) : Compression and Tension

Answer : (d)

Question-171 : Truss bridge live load analysis is done using _________.

(A) : Shear force diagram

(B) : Bending moment diagram

(C) : Shear force and bending moment diagram

(D) : Influence line diagram

Answer : (d)

Question-172 : Slenderness ratio of a compression member is

(A) : Moment of inertia / Radius of gyration

(B) : Effective length / Area of cross-section

(C) : Radius of gyration / Effective length

(D) : Radius of gyration / Area of cross-section

Answer : (c)

Question-173 : The channels or angles in compression chords of the steel truss girder bridges are turned outward in order to increase __________.

(A) : cross-sectional area.

(B) : sectional modulus.

(C) : torsional constant.

(D) : radius of gyration.

Answer : (d)

Question-174 : For hot rolled hollow section, buckling class is

(A) : a

(B) : b

(C) : c

(D) : d

Answer : (a)

Question-175 : For cold formed hollow section, buckling class is

(A) : a

(B) : d

(C) : c

(D) : b

Answer : (d)

Question-176 : For built-up section from hot rolled section, buckling class is

(A) : a

(B) : c

(C) : d

(D) : b

Answer : (b)

Question-177 : For hot rolled channel, angle, T and solid section, buckling class is

(A) : a

(B) : d

(C) : b

(D) : c

Answer : (d)

Question-178 : In footover bridge, effective length of top chord member of truss is ____________.

(A) : 2.0 L

(B) : 1.0 L

(C) : 1.2 L

(D) : 0.8 L

Answer : (b)

Question-179 : In design of foot over bridge, slenderness ratio is design criteria for _____________.

(A) : Tension members

(B) : Compression members

(C) : Cross beams

(D) : All of above.

Answer : (b)

Question-180 : The imperfection factor, for buckling class a is ________.

(A) : 0.76

(B) : 0.34

(C) : 0.49

(D) : 0.21

Answer : (d)

Question-181 : The imperfection factor, for buckling class b is ________.

(A) : 0.49

(B) : 0.76

(C) : 0.34

(D) : 0.21

Answer : (c)

Question-182 : The imperfection factor, for buckling class c is ________.

(A) : 0.21

(B) : 0.49

(C) : 0.34

(D) : 0.76

Answer : (b)

Question-183 : Structures designed using elastic analysis may be ______ than those designed using plastic analysis.

(A) : Lighter

(B) : Heavier

(C) : Of same weight

(D) : Almost half times the weight

Answer : (b)

Question-184 : Both elastic and plastic methods neglect ________

(A) : Live load acting on structure

(B) : Dead load acting on structure

(C) : Deformations due to load

(D) : Influence of stability

Answer : (d)

Question-185 : What is buckling?

(A) : Structural behaviour in which a deformation develops in direction of plane perpendicular to that of load which produced it.

(B) : Structural behaviour in which a deformation does not develop in direction of plane perpendicular to that of load which produced it.

(C) : Structural behaviour in which a deformation develop in direction of plane parallel to that of load which produced it.

(D) : Structural behaviour in which a deformation develops in direction of plane along that of load which produced it.

Answer : (a)

Question-186 : What is plastic moment of resistance?

(A) : Maximum moment in stress strain curve, the point where the curvature can increase indefinitely

(B) : Maximum moment in stress strain curve, the point where the curvature can decrease indefinitely

(C) : Minimum moment in stress strain curve, the point where the curvature can increase indefinitely

(D) : Minimum moment in stress strain curve, the point where the curvature can decrease indefinitely

Answer : (a)

Question-187 : In elastic stage, equilibrium condition is achieved when neutral axis ___________ and in fully plastic stage, it is achieved when neutral axis ___________

(A) : is above centroid of the section, divides the section into two parts of one-third area and two-third area

(B) : is below centroid of the section, divides the section into two parts of one-third area and two-third area

(C) : is above centroid of the section, divides the section into two equal areas

(D) : passes through centroid of the section, divides the section into two equal areas

Answer : (d)

Question-188 : The shape factor does not depend on ___

(A) : Material properties

(B) : Cross sectional shape

(C) : Moment of resistance

(D) : Section modulus

Answer : (a)

Question-189 : Match the pairs with correct shape factor: Cross section Shape factor (average or maximum) A) Circular (i) 1.8 B) Rectangular (ii) 1.14 C) wide flange I-section (about major axis) (iii) 1.7 D) Channels (about minor axis) (iv) 1.5

(A) : A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv

(B) : A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i

(C) : A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i

(D) : A-iii, B-ii, C-iv, D-i

Answer : (c)

Question-190 : Which of the following assumptions is correct for plastic design?

(A) : Material obeys Hooke’s law after the stress reaches .

(B) : Yield stress and modulus of elasticity does not have same value in compression and tension.

(C) : Material is homogeneous and isotropic in both elastic and plastic states.

(D) : Material is not sufficiently ductile to permit large rotations.

Answer : (c)

Question-191 : Which of the following assumptions is not correct for plastic design?

(A) : Plastic hinge rotations are small compared with elastic deformations so all the rotations are concentrated at plastic hinges.

(B) : Segments between plastic hinges are rigid.

(C) : Influence of normal and shear forces on plastic moments is not considered.

(D) : Plane section remains plane after bending and the effect of shear is neglected.

Answer : (a)

Question-192 : Which of the following conditions is true for using plastic method of analysis as per IS 800?

(A) : Members shall not be hot-rolled or fabricated using hot-plates.

(B) : Yield stress of steel should not be greater than 450 MPa.

(C) : Cross section should be unsymmetrical about its axis perpendicular to axis of plastic hinge rotation.

(D) : Cross section of members not containing plastic hinges should be ‘plastic’ and those members containing plastic hinges should be ‘compact’.

Answer : (b)

Question-193 : Which of the following is true regarding plastic design methods?

(A) : Design needs to satisfy elastic strain compatibility conditions.

(B) : Different factor of safety for all parts of the structure.

(C) : Saving of material over elastic methods resulting in lighter structures.

(D) : Design is affected by temperature changes, settlement of support, etc.

Answer : (c)

Question-194 : Which of the following is true regarding plastic design methods?

(A) : Difficult to design for fatigue.

(B) : More saving in column design.

(C) : Lateral bracing requirements are less stringent than for elastic design.

(D) : Moments produced by different loading conditions can be added together.

Answer : (a)

Question-195 : What is plastic hinge?

(A) : Zone of bending due to flexure in a structural member.

(B) : Zone of yielding due to flexure in a structural member.

(C) : Zone of non-yielding due to flexure in a structural member.

(D) : Zone of yielding due to twisting in a structural member.

Answer : (b)

Question-196 : Plastic hinge behaves like a ______

(A) : Friction mechanical hinge except that there is always a fixed moment constraint.

(B) : Frictionless mechanical hinge except that there is no fixed moment constrain.

(C) : Friction mechanical hinge except that there is no fixed moment constraint.

(D) : Frictionless mechanical hinge except that there is always a fixed moment constraint.

Answer : (d)

Question-197 : What is plastic-collapse load?

(A) : Load at which sufficient number of elastic hinges are formed.

(B) : Load at which sufficient number of plastic hinges are not formed.

(C) : Load at which sufficient number of plastic hinges are formed.

(D) : Load at which structure fails.

Answer : (c)

Question-198 : What is difference between plastic design and elastic design?

(A) : In plastic design, redistribution of bending moment is considered.

(B) : In plastic design, redistribution of bending moment is not considered.

(C) : In elastic design, redistribution of bending moment is considered.

(D) : Both in plastic and elastic design, redistribution of bending moment is considered.

Answer : (a)

Question-199 : Which of the following statement is correct?

(A) : Plastic limit load is obtained by multiplying working load with load factor.

(B) : Plastic limit load is obtained by dividing working load with load factor.

(C) : Working load is obtained by multiplying plastic limit load with load factor.

(D) : Working load is obtained by multiplying working load with load factor.

Answer : (a)

Question-200 : What is the condition for equilibrium in plastic analysis?

(A) : Bending moment distribution defined by assumed plastic hinges must not be in static equilibrium with applied loads and reactions.

(B) : Shear force distribution defined by assumed plastic hinges must be in static equilibrium with applied loads and reactions.

(C) : Bending moment distribution defined by assumed plastic hinges must be in static equilibrium with applied loads and reactions.

(D) : Shear force distribution defined by assumed plastic hinges must not be in static equilibrium with applied loads and reactions.

Answer : (c)

Question-201 : Which of the following is true?

(A) : Ultimate load is reached when a mechanism is formed.

(B) : Ultimate load is not reached when a mechanism is formed.

(C) : Plastic hinges are not required for beam to form a mechanism.

(D) : Frictionless hinges are not required for beam to form a mechanism.

Answer : (a)

Question-202 : What is principle of virtual work?

(A) : Work done by external forces is greater than work done by internal forces.

(B) : Work done by external forces is less than work done by internal forces.

(C) : Work done by external forces is equal to work done by internal forces.

(D) : Work done by internal forces is greater than work done by external forces.

Answer : (c)

Question-203 : Principle of virtual work is used to satisfy _____

(A) : Mechanism condition

(B) : Equilibrium condition

(C) : Plasticity condition

(D) : No condition is satisfied

Answer : (b)

Question-204 : Virtual work is used to determine _____

(A) : Yield load

(B) : Elastic load

(C) : Plastic load

(D) : collapse load

Answer : (d)

Question-205 : What is static theorem?

(A) : Load must be greater than collapse load

(B) : Load must be less than collapse load

(C) : Load must be not equal to collapse load

(D) : Load cannot be related to collapse load

Answer : (b)

Question-206 : Which of the following is true about static theorem?

(A) : It represents upper limit to true ultimate load.

(B) : It represents plastic load.

(C) : It has minimum factor of safety.

(D) : It satisfies equilibrium and yield conditions.

Answer : (d)

Question-207 : Which of the following condition is true for kinematic theorem?

(A) : Load must be greater than collapse load

(B) : Load must be less than collapse load

(C) : Load must be not equal to collapse load

(D) : Load cannot be related to collapse load

Answer : (a)

Question-208 : Load is called as correct collapse load when

(A) : Static theorem is not satisfied

(B) : Kinematic theorem is not satisfied

(C) : Only static theorem is satisfied

(D) : Both static and kinematic theorem are satisfied

Answer : (d)

Question-209 : Which of the following is true about kinematic analysis?

(A) : Virtual work equations are not used to determine collapse load.

(B) : Virtual work equations are used to determine collapse load.

(C) : Equilibrium condition is assumed.

(D) : Plasticity condition is assumed.

Answer : (b)

Question-210 : The number of independent mechanism is related to number of possible plastic hinge locations by ________ (If n = no. of independent mechanism, N = no. of possible plastic hinge locations, r = degree of redundancy)

(A) : n = N x r

(B) : n = N / r

(C) : n = N + r

(D) : n = N – r

Answer : (d)

Question-211 : In static method of analysis, moment at any section is _______ plastic moment capacity.

(A) : Greater than

(B) : Two times

(C) : Less than

(D) : Three times

Answer : (c)

Question-212 : Single bay portal frames with fixed bases have _______

(A) : Two redundancies

(B) : Three redundancies

(C) : Four redundancies

(D) : Zero redundancies

Answer : (b)

Question-213 : Which of the following statement is true?

(A) : Combined mechanism is combination of elementary mechanism.

(B) : Elementary mechanism is combination of combined mechanism.

(C) : Combined mechanism is not combination of elementary mechanism.

(D) : Elementary mechanism is combination of elementary and combined mechanism.

Answer : (a)

Question-214 : What is a plastic section?

(A) : Cross section which can develop plastic moment.

(B) : Cross section which can resist seismic force.

(C) : Cross section in which buckling can occur.

(D) : Cross section which can develop plastic hinges.

Answer : (d)

Question-215 : What is a compact section?

(A) : Cross section which can develop plastic moment resistance.

(B) : Cross section which can resist seismic force.

(C) : Cross section in which buckling can occur.

(D) : Cross section which can develop plastic hinges.

Answer : (a)

Question-216 : What is a semi-compact section?

(A) : Cross section which can develop plastic moment resistance.

(B) : Cross section which can resist seismic force.

(C) : Cross section in which elastically calculated stress in extreme compression fibre can reach yield strength.

(D) : Cross section which can develop plastic hinges.

Answer : (c)

Question-217 : What is a slender section?

(A) : Cross section which can develop plastic moment resistance.

(B) : Cross section which can resist seismic force.

(C) : Cross section in which elastically calculated stress in extreme compression fibre can reach yield strength.

(D) : Cross section in which local buckling will occur before yield stress.

Answer : (d)

1224 pages mcq

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